Let the function space $A$ denote all functions $f : [0, 1) \to [0, 1)$ such that, for some set $Z$ of Lebesgue measure zero, the derivative $f'$ exists on $[0, 1) \setminus Z$ and $|f'| = 1$ there.
Let the function space $B$ denote all functions $f : [0, 1) \to [0, 1)$ such that for all $a < b$ in $[0, 1)$, the portion $G_f(a,b) = \{(x,f(x)) ∈ \mathbb R^2 \mid a \le x < b\}$ of the graph of $f$ that lies above $[a, b)$ has Hausdorff $1$-measure $H_1(G_f(a,b))$ equal to $\sqrt 2(b - a)$.
(Note that we do not assume functions to be continuous.)
Does $A = B$?
Edit: The following is false, as was shown to me by Christian Remling by an easy application of the Cantor function: "It is clear to me that $A$ is a subset of $B$." (Wrong!)
- So the real question is whether the reverse inclusion holds.