On the third edition of Ahlfors' Complex Analysis, page 122 Lemma 3 it states: Now, if we divide the identity by $z-z_0$ and let $z$ tend to $z_0$, the quotient in the first term tends to a derivative which by the induction hypothesis equals $(n-1)F_{n+1}(z_0)$.
I'm confused about it.
We have: \begin{equation*} \lim_{z\rightarrow z_{0}}\frac{1}{z-z_{0}}\left(\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z)^{n-1}}d\zeta-\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z_{0})^{n-1}}d\zeta\right)=(n-1)\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z_{0})^{n}}d\zeta \end{equation*}
But I don't know how to prove: \begin{equation*} \lim_{z\rightarrow z_0}\frac{1}{z-z_0}\left[\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z)^{n-1}(\zeta-z_{0})}d\zeta-\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z_{0})^{n}}d\zeta\right]=(n-1)\int_{\gamma}\frac{\varphi(\zeta)}{(\zeta-z_{0})^{n+1}}d\zeta \end{equation*}
This a question from Ahlfors' Complex Analysis. I show you the whole context of the question below. I have trouble understanding the statement with red line.