1
$\begingroup$

The position operator $X$ is defined as multiplication by $x$, i.e. $$(X\psi)(x):=x\psi(x).$$

We take the domain $D(X)\subset L^2(\mathbb R)$ for $X$, which we can take

$$D(X):=\{\psi \in L^2(\mathbb R), \int_{\mathbb{R}} x^2 |\psi(x)|^2 dx<\infty\}.$$

The momentum operator is defined as $$(P\psi)(x)=-i \nabla \psi(x),$$ and $$D(P):=\{\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}), \frac{d}{dx}\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R})\}.$$

Finally, given an external potential $V: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$, the corresponding multiplication is given by the map $$V:D(V)\subset L^2(\mathbb{R})\to L^2(\mathbb{R}), \; (V\psi)(x):=V(x)\psi(x).$$ We take $$D(V):= \{\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}), V\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R})\}.$$

From this we have the Hamiltonian operator $H\psi(x,t):= -\Delta\psi(x,t) + V(x)\psi(x,t).$

A densely-defined operator on $L^2(\mathbb{R}^d)$ is a pair $(A,D(A))$ where the domain $D(A)$ is a dense linear subspace of $L^2(\mathbb{R}^d)$ and $A:D(A)\to L^2(\mathbb{R}^d)$ is a linear map.

We say that a densely-defined linear operator $A$ on $L^2(\mathbb{R})$ is symmetric if for all $f,g \in D(A),$ we have $$\langle Af, g\rangle = \langle f, Ag \rangle.$$

I am trying to prove that the operators $X,P, H$ are symmetric.

For this, I have shown that $\langle Af, g\rangle = \langle f,Ag \rangle$ for $A=X,P,H$ when $f,g$ are Schwartz functions.

Now I am trying to use the density argument to generalize this to all functions in the domain of the operators. However, I have several problems.

First, given $f_n \to f, g_n \to g$ in $L^2$, how can I show that $\lim_n \langle Af_n, g_n \rangle= \langle Af, g\rangle$?

Next, is it true that if $f_n \to f$ in $L^2$ then $Af_n \to Af$ in $L^2$ as well for each of these operators? I am not sure why this holds, but if it doesn't then it doesn't seem like I can use the above density argument, so I don't know how to prove these results.

I would greatly appreciate some help.

Edit.

So I believe this isn't a straightforward application of the density argument. But restricted in the calculations.

For $P$, we have $$\langle Pf,g\rangle = \int \overline{-i \frac{d}{dx}f(x)}g(x)dx = i\int \overline{\frac{d}{dx}f(x)}g(x)dx.$$ And I need to move the derivative over to $g$, and to do this I need integration by parts which gives $$=-i\int \overline{f(x)} \frac{dg(x)}{dx} dx+i\overline{f(x)} \frac{d}{dx}g(x)|_{-\infty}^\infty.$$ And to get rid of the boundary terms I need to take $f,g \in \mathcal{S}(\mathbb{R})$.

Similarly, for the operator $V$, we have $$\langle Hf,g\rangle = \int \overline{(-\frac{d^2}{dx^2}f(x)+V(x)f(x))} g(x)dx = \int -\frac{d^2}{dx^2}\overline{f(x)}g(x)+V(x)\overline{f(x)}g(x)dx.$$

Now because $V$ is real valued, and we assume $Vf, Vg$ are in $L^2$, the right integral just becomes $\int \overline{f(x)}V(x)g(x)dx$, which is of the form we need for $Hg$.

But the first integral again needs integration by parts and to chage it to $\int -\overline{f(x)}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}g(x)dx$ we need the boundary terms to vanish.

So I believe we only need the density argument for establishing the integral identity $$ \int \frac{d}{dx}\overline{f(x)}g(x)dx = -\int \overline{f(x)}\frac{d}{dx}g(x)dx$$ and $$\int \frac{d^2}{dx^2}\overline{f(x)}g(x)dx=\int \overline{f(x)}\frac{d^2}{dx^2}g(x)dx.$$

And for these functions $f,g$ they belong to the domain $\{\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}), \frac{d}{dx}\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R})\}$ and $\{\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R}), \frac{d^2}{dx^2}\psi \in L^2(\mathbb{R})\}$ for the domains of $P$ and $H$, respectively. And the Schwartz class of functions $\mathcal{S}$ belongs to these domains, and is a dense subspace of $L^2$.

But to use a density argument, for example for the first integral, we have $$|\int \nabla \overline{f_n}g_n - \nabla \overline{f}g| \\ = |\int \nabla \overline{f_n}(g_n-g) + g(\nabla \overline{f_n} - \nabla \overline{f})| \le \Vert \nabla \overline{f_n}\Vert_L^2 \Vert g_n - g\Vert_L^2 + \Vert g\Vert_L^2 \Vert \nabla \overline{f_n} - \nabla \overline{f}\Vert_L^2. $$

But here to deal with the convergence of the derivative, I had to use the $H^2$ norm. I know that $H^2$ is a dense subspace of $L^2$, but I don't know how to pass from $H^2$ functions to the functions in the domain of the operators. How can I deal with this issue?

$\endgroup$
15
  • $\begingroup$ Don't you not want to consider $f_n\to f$ in $L^2$? We know that these operators are not defined on the whole of $L^2$, hence restricting ourselves to their dense domains. Extending these operators in a meaningful way to the entire space requires a rigged Hilbert space. $\endgroup$
    – whpowell96
    Commented Feb 2 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ @whpowell96 Yes Schwartz functions $f_n \to f$ in $L^2$. Did you interpret me as saying $f_n \to f$ pointwise? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 2 at 16:33
  • $\begingroup$ I'm sorry, I should have been more clear. I meant to say, when you consider $f_n\to f$, are you saying that $f_n$ are Schwartz and $f$ is in $D(A)$? Or are you saying that $f\in L^2$? Because $Af$ is not defined in general for $f\in L^2$ $\endgroup$
    – whpowell96
    Commented Feb 2 at 20:22
  • $\begingroup$ @whpowell96 oh yes $f,g$ are assumed to be in $D(A)$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 2 at 20:38
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ You cannot use density arguments without knowing things about your operators. You can have operators be symmetric on a dense subspace of their domain, but the operator itself is not symmetric (but know that these kinds of operators, while they exist, do not commonly appear "in nature", nor are they very useful). If the operator is closed you could possibly apply some continuity argument, but symmetry is usually much easier to check than closedness. $\endgroup$
    – s.harp
    Commented Feb 2 at 21:12

0

You must log in to answer this question.