$$ \newcommand{\N}{\mathbb N} $$
I am paraphrasing this textbook question slightly.
Question:
Let $(X_n)_{n \in \N}$ and $(Y_n)_{n \in \N}$ be two sequences of real random variables, and let $X$ and $Y$ be two real random variables.
- Does $X_n \to X$ and $Y_n \to Y$ (both in distribution) imply $(X_n, Y_n) \to (X, Y)$ in distribution?
- Show that 1. holds when $Y$ is constant almost surely.
- Show that 1. holds when $X_n$ and $Y_n$ are independent, and $X$ and $Y$ are independent.
My attempt:
I did 3., which is fairly easy if you use characteristic functions. However, I am stuck on 1 and 2.
For 1, I am pretty sure the answer is no, but I don't know what kind of counterexample to come up with. I figure I need to introduce some kind of dependence between $X_n$ and $Y_n$, and/or between $X$ and $Y$.
For 2, I think this can be done in some way via the portmanteau theorem. There is a related proof on Wikipedia (link), but it assumes $Y_n \to c$ in probability, not almost surely, and it seems kind of messy. (I realize assuming only convergence in probability makes it stronger, but it seems like it might not be what the author of this exercise had in mind.)
I appreciate any help.