I am new on computing external derivative, wedge product and pull-backs so I am having issues to understund some things about those things. For example, an excercise of my class notes is to prove that there is not any $f : \Bbb{R} - \{ 0 \} \rightarrow \Bbb{R}$ smooth that satisfies $df = \omega$ where $$\omega = \frac{-y \, dx + x \, dy}{x^2+y^2}$$
The problem is that, supposing that it exist such $f$ and integrating the partials of $f$, I obtained the following: $$ \frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \frac{-y}{x^2+y^2} \Rightarrow f(x,y) = -\arctan (\frac{x}{y}) + c_1 \\ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = \frac{x}{x^2+y^2} \Rightarrow f(x,y) = \arctan (\frac{y}{x}) + c_2 $$
Both of them satisfies $df = \omega$ so, I do not know if I am missing something or do not know some theoretical result that helps to conclude. Any possible help would be appreciated :)