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I want to find a closed form for the average value of $\cos\{t-\cos t\}$ where $\{n\}$ denotes the fractional part of $n$. I do not have experience finding an average value over an infinite domain but I assume it would be something like this: $$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\int_{0}^{x}\cos\{t-\cos t\}dt}{x}$$ I am not sure if the limit converges. Here is what I have from Desmos:

$$\begin{array}{|c|c|} \hline x & \frac{\int_{0}^{x}\cos\{t-\cos t\}dt}{x} \\\hline 10 & 0.829164368874\\\hline 10*10^3 & 0.834299716027\\\hline 10*10^6 & 0.859423358961\\\hline 10*10^9 & 0.840428861971\\\hline 10*10^{14} & 0.826897135363\\\hline 10*10^{15} & 0.958730802913\\\hline 10*10^{16} & 0.995401790748\\\hline 10*10^{26} & 0.999999999999\\\hline 10*10^{27} & 1\\\hline \end{array}$$

As you can see, the limit appears to oscillate which makes sense after looking at the graph. When it gets to 10$^{\text{15}}$, it suddenly jumps up and begins to approach 1. My intuition tells me this is probably a bug because I am using such high numbers. I tried to solve it by hand but failed to figure out how to convert it to a summation.

I have a few ideas to what it converges to (assuming it does and is not 1) but they are basically wild guesses. $$\cos(\cos(1))\approx 0.857553215846$$ $$\frac{\pi^2}{12}\approx 0.822467033424$$ All help is appreciated :)

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    $\begingroup$ I think your limit's argument's numerator, which is malformed, is meant to read $\int_0^x\cos\{t-\cos t\}dt$. $\endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 21:49
  • $\begingroup$ @J.G. Thank you for letting me know. I will edit the post. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 17, 2023 at 21:53
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    $\begingroup$ A change in computer results around $10^{14}$ is highly suspicious, since that's near the point where the precision of a "double" value reaches $1$, as in (x+1 == x) may evaluate true. $\endgroup$
    – aschepler
    Commented Nov 20, 2023 at 16:12
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    $\begingroup$ A probability approach suggests convergence to $\sin 1 \approx .84147$. $\endgroup$
    – aschepler
    Commented Nov 20, 2023 at 20:26

4 Answers 4

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The limit is $$\sin(1) \approx 0.8414709848.$$ As others have said, invalid approximations using floating point arithmetic are likely to blame for the values in the table with $x > 10^{16}$.

Let $f(t) = \cos(\{t - \cos t\})$ and let $A(x) = x^{-1}\int_0^x f(t)\, dt$. Note that $A(x)$ is the average value of $f$ on $[0,x]$. The derivative of $A(x)$ is $A'(x) = -x^{-2} \int_0^x f(t)\, dt + x^{-1} f(x)$, so $|A'(x)| \le 2/x$. By the mean value theorem, $|A(x) - A(2 \pi n)| \le 2/n$ for $n = \lfloor x / (2 \pi)\rfloor$, so it is enough to find $\lim_{n\to \infty} A(2 \pi n)$ (for $n$ integer). Now we use the fact that $f(t)$ is not $2\pi$-periodic, but still rather easy to study along steps by $2\pi$. We have $$\begin{aligned}A(2 \pi n) &= \frac1{2\pi n} \int_0^{2 \pi n} f(t)\, dt\\ &= \frac1{2\pi n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \int_0^{2 \pi} f(t + 2\pi k)\, dt\\ &= \frac1{2\pi}\int_0^{2 \pi} \frac1n \left( \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \cos(\{t - \cos t + 2\pi k\}) \right)\,dt.\end{aligned}$$ Since $2\pi$ is irrational, its mutliples modulo $1$ are asymptotically equidistributed, so for any fixed $t \in [0,2 \pi]$ the integrand $$\frac1n \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \cos(\{t - \cos t + 2 \pi k\}) \longrightarrow \int_0^1 \cos(s)\,ds = \sin(1)$$ as $n \to \infty$. By the dominated convergence theorem it follows that $A(2 \pi n) \to \sin(1)$.

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The integrand $2\pi$-periodic and odd with respect to reflection $ t\to \pi-t$, $$\cos \left( (2 n+1)\ \pi - t - \cos \left( (2 n+1) \pi -t\right )\right)=-\cos (t-\cos (t))$$ so the integrals over all subintervals $t\in (\mathbb Z \ \pi, (\mathbb Z+1) \pi$ are zero.

Don't know is that helps, but approximations by numeric integration should be done per period.

Its an expectation of a random variable with values in (-1,1), continuous with random jumps. Since the argument is in $(0,\pi/2) + (\pi/2, \cos 1 )$ the value positive.

A histogram of the numeric integral over consecutive intervals
$\left(2 \ n\ \pi ,(2n+2) \ \pi \right)$ is showing a zig-zag in a small interval around 5.5

    tb = Array[(NIntegrate[Cos[FractionalPart[t - Cos[t]]],
               {t, # 2 \[Pi], (# + 1) 2 \[Pi]}] &), 128] 

The sorted

statistcs co fractpart

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    $\begingroup$ The integrand is absolutely not 2π periodic! What? $\endgroup$
    – K.defaoite
    Commented Nov 26, 2023 at 18:02
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I do not know what is the answer but, working with a required high precision, there are severe numerical problems as soon as $x>97$ because the integrand is highly oscillatory and discontinuous.

What does happen for larger values of $x$ ? that is the question.

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$\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{\int_0^x\cos{\{t-\cos{t}}\}dt}{x}$

Use L'Hospital's rule

$\lim_{x\to\infty}\cos{\{x-\cos{x}}\}$

Hmmm, idk man, seems like it doesn't converge

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    $\begingroup$ To use L'Hospital's rule, you first need to show the numerator integral approaches infinity. I don't see a simple proof of that. $\endgroup$
    – aschepler
    Commented Nov 20, 2023 at 16:08
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    $\begingroup$ Oh, that part is fairly simple: $\cos \{t-\cos t\} > \cos(1)$. But L'Hospital's rule still doesn't apply since the numerator is not differentiable. $\endgroup$
    – aschepler
    Commented Nov 20, 2023 at 17:34
  • $\begingroup$ you need a proof that the numerator approaches infinity? the integral which oscillates and never goes below the x axis or approach 0? would you like to me also prove that that x approaches infinity as x approaches infinity? would you like to me also prove that 1+1=2 ? $\endgroup$
    – uggupuggu
    Commented Nov 21, 2023 at 9:45
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    $\begingroup$ The L-Hospital's theorem clearly states that if $\lim \frac{f'(x)}{g'(x)}$ exists only then it is $= \lim \frac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ which is definitely not the case here so we can't apply L-Hospital's rule. It's like saying $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{sinx}{x}$ does not exist because after applying L-Hospital's rule, it becomes $\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} cos x$ which is oscillatory $\endgroup$
    – Ham Lemon
    Commented Nov 23, 2023 at 10:39
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    $\begingroup$ @aschepler: l'Hospital's rule applies to forms $0/0$ and $\text{anything} /\infty$ but the second form is not well known (even after I have mentioned it in many of my comments) and people mistakenly think that the second form is $\infty/\infty$. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Commented Nov 27, 2023 at 15:02

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