Question: Show that the number of partitions of $n$ into $k$th powers $(k>1)$ in which no part appears more than $k-1$ times is always equal to 1.
This is actually an exercise from the book Integer Partition by George E. Andrews and Kimmo Eriksson.
Here are some of my ideas for proof. if $k \ge n$, the partition that satisfies the problem can only consist of 1. But if $k<n$, I think the existence of partition can be proved by a process similar to obtaining binary, but I have no idea how to prove the uniqueness of partition.