The range of $\sin^{-1}(x)$ is (-$\pi/2, \pi/2)$, so is that of cosec$^−$$^1$(x) {except the 0 since 1/0 isn't defined}
The range of $\cos^{-1}(x)$ is (0, $\pi)$, so is that of $\sec^{-1}(x)$ {except the $\pi/2$ since 1/0 isn't defined}
Why isn't the same true for $\tan^{-1}(x)$ and $\cot^{-1}(x)$?
Why is the range of $\tan^{-1}(x)$ = (-$\pi/2, \pi/2)$ but that of $\cot^{-1}(x)$ = (0, $\pi)$
aren't they reciprocals?
from the graph, it's clear that that would be possible too (i.e. they can have the same range too, except cot$^−$$^1$(x) would not have the 0 for obvious reasons)