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I'm trying to solve the following problem: given an integer $n$, under which conditions of $n$ the following statement is true:

For any $1 < k \leq n$, there is always a partition of $k$ parts of $n$ so that each part is coprime with $n$.

Here is what I obtained:

  1. The statement is obviously true if $n$ is prime,
  2. If $n > 2$ then $n$ is odd since $2$ must occur in the partition of $n-1$ part of $n$.

I think that the condition should be:

$n$ is either $2$ or an odd number.

I've tried several numbers, for example $9$ (the first odd number which is not prime):

$$\begin{align*}9 &= 1 + \dots + 1 \\ &= \dots \\ &= 1 + 4 + 4 \\ &= 1 + 8 \end{align*}$$

Using the trick of grouping powers of $2$, I've found that if $n = (a_1 \dots a_i)_{m}$ for some base $m$ where $gcd(m,n) = 1$, then there is always a partition of $k$ part where $\sum\limits_{j=1}^{i} a_j \leq k \leq n$. Then I found that $15$, $21$ are ok too.

For example:

  • $15 = 1111_2$, so I can find partition until $1+1+1+1 = 4$ parts, and
  • $15 = 21_7$, so I can find partition until $2+1 = 3$ parts, finally
  • $15 = 11_{14}$, so I can find partition until $1+1= 2$ parts.

and:

  • $21 = 10101_{2}$, so until $3$,
  • $21 = 11_{20}$, so until $2$.
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  • $\begingroup$ Maybe it's easier if you weaken the condition slightly. for each summand, $m$, allow $\gcd(m,n)≤2$. With that weakened condition, $n=4$ is now good, and a quick check shows that $n=6, 8$ are good as well. Maybe all $n$ are good in this weakened sense? Of course, the weakened condition is still good enough to prove the strong one when $n$ is odd. $\endgroup$
    – lulu
    Commented Oct 15, 2023 at 13:08

1 Answer 1

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Let $n$ be an odd integer and let $m$ be the largest positive integer with $2^m<n$, then $\gcd(n,n-2^m)=\gcd(n,2^m)=1$. Now, for $0\le \ell\le m$, $$ n =(n-2^m) +2^{m-\ell}+ \sum_{i=0}^\ell2^{m-i}, $$ which shows the partitions exist for $2\le k\le m+3$. Because the number of digits in the binary representation of $n$ equal to $1$ is at most $m$, your grouping of powers of $2$ trick works for all other values of $k$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you. I still cannot understand your reasoning "because the number of digits..... grouping power of 2 tricks works...", could you please explain it a little bit more detail? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2023 at 16:45
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, I think I understood it. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2023 at 17:02

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