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a. Let $z_1,z_2,...,z_n$ be distinct complex numbers $(n \geq 2)$. Show that in the partial fractions decomposition \begin{equation} \frac{1}{(z-z_1)(z-z_2)\cdots(z-z_n)} = \frac{A_1}{z-z_1}+\frac{A_2}{z-z_2}+\cdots+\frac{A_n}{z-z_n} \end{equation} we must have $A_1+A_2+...+A_n=0$.

b. Suppose that C is a simple closed path that contains the points $z_1,z_2,...,z_n$ in its interior. Use the result in part a to prove that \begin{equation} \int_C \frac{1}{(z-z_1)(z-z_2)\cdots(z-z_n)} dz = 0. \end{equation}

Assuming part a to be true, we can include epsilon balls around each of the discontinuities $z_1,...,z_n$ and the integral over the region is the sum of the integrals of the epsilon balls. But for each epsilon ball, the integral over all but one of the summands will vanish, and for the non-vanishing one, we get $A_i2\pi i$ (assuming positive orientation on all curves).

Then the answer is $2\pi i(A_1+...+A_n) = 0.$

My question is how to show part a. I've thought about it for a while, now. I know what each $A_i$ is explicitly, by Heaviside's cover-up trick/rule. But there's gotta be an easier way than writing and summing all of those up, right?

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  • $\begingroup$ WLOG you can assume $z_1=0$. Then you can consider $1/z$ transformation. Note after $1/z$ transformation, the function is holomorphic everywhere inside $C$'s image under $1/z$, where outside $C$ is mapped to region containing $0$. There you see that no poles were sitting in side $1/z$ transformed integral. Hence, integral is 0. That will give you a) by indirect transformation. If non of $z_i$ is $0$, you can translate one of $z_i$ to $0$. $\endgroup$
    – user45765
    Commented Jul 16, 2023 at 22:08
  • $\begingroup$ @user45765 I noted that the reciprocal of f(z) was a polynomial, and hence entire. Since 1/f(z) is analytic everywhere, any closed path should have contour integral equal to 0. Could you help me understand why f(z) itself has contour integral equal to 0? I like this approach. $\endgroup$
    – Alex
    Commented Jul 16, 2023 at 23:35

2 Answers 2

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Multiply to eliminate the denominators and check the coefficients of $z^{n-1}$ on both sides.

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Hint Multiplying both sides of the decomposition by $(z - z_1) \cdots (z - z_n)$ gives $$1 = \sum_k A_k (z - z_1) \cdots \widehat{(z - z_k)} \cdots (z - z_n) ,$$ where the wide hat denotes omission of that factor. Compare the coefficients in $z$ of both sides of the equation.

Remark The same argument shows that if $\deg p < n$, then the decomposition $$\frac{p(z)}{(z - z_1) \cdots (z - z_n)} = \frac{B_1}{z - z_1} + \cdots + \frac{B_n}{z - z_n}$$ satisfies $B_1 + \cdots + B_n = 0$ iff $\deg p < n - 1$.

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