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A doctorate told me to think about why there is no mapping from coxeter groups to $\mathbb{Z}$. This makes sense since HNN-extensions are of the form $$A\star_{\{(\varphi_1 , C,\varphi_2 )\}}=\langle A,t\mid R_A,R_C\rangle$$ where $R_C=${$ t\varphi_1(c)t^{-1}=\varphi_2(c) \mid c\in C $} and $A=\langle a_1,a_2,...\mid R_A\rangle$, $R_A$ the set of relations in $A.$

Since $t$ doesn't have any relations in the HNN-extension there exists a map $\alpha: \langle t\rangle \to \mathbb{Z}, t\mapsto 1$, so $\mathbb{Z}$ is basically embedded in the HNN-extension (correct me if I'm wrong)?

So when thinking about the initial question I thought that I just have to proof that coxeter groups don't have any elements of infinite order but upon researching that fact I learned that it's simply not true. So shouldn't therefore exist an element $t$ in a coxeter group such that $\alpha$ exists?

Please don't put full solutions to this question on here, I want to solve it myself but just need some intuition about coxeter groups.

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    $\begingroup$ The fact that it has elements of infinite order does not imply that it has a nontrivial homomorphism to ${\mathbb Z}$. To prove that it has no such map it would be enough to prove that its abelianization has no element of infinite order. $\endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 16:41
  • $\begingroup$ @DerekHolt I know that it's abelianization is $\mathbb{Z}_2^n$ for some $n$ related to the Matrix. The answer is obvious then. Why is it enough to show this for the abelianization? Thanks for your answer! $\endgroup$
    – shekh
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 16:50
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    $\begingroup$ A homomorphism from a group $G$ to ${\mathbb Z}$ (or to any abelian group) has $[G,G]$ in its kernel, so it induces a homomorphism from $G/[G,G]$ to ${\mathbb Z}$. $\endgroup$
    – Derek Holt
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 17:14
  • $\begingroup$ @DerekHolt Thank you! that's a great answer $\endgroup$
    – shekh
    Commented Jun 20, 2023 at 17:18

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You are confused by embeddings vs homomorphic images. Not every homomorphic image is isomorphic to a subgroup, and not every subgroup is isomorphic to a homomorphic image. In particular, Coxeter groups in general contain subgroups isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$, but have no homomorphic image isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}$.


A Coxeter group has presentation of the form $$\mathcal{P}=\langle a_1, \ldots, a_n\mid \mathbf{r}, a_i^2 (i=1, \ldots, n)\rangle$$ for set of relators $\mathbf{r}$; the specific form of relators in $\mathbf{r}$ does not matter for this problem.

Any such presentation $\mathcal{P}$ has an abelianisation where every non-trivial element has order $2$; this is because if $\hat{a_i}$ is the image of $a_i$ in the abelianisation then any word $W(\hat{a_1}, \ldots, \hat{a_n})$ over these generators has square $$W(\hat{a_1}, \ldots, \hat{a_n})W(\hat{a_1}, \ldots, \hat{a_n})=W(\hat{a_1}^2, \ldots, \hat{a_n}^2)=W(1, \ldots, 1)=1.$$ In particular, the abelianisation is finite (as there are finitely many generators). As every abelian quotient of a group factors through its abelianisation, every abelian quotient of every Coxeter group is finite. Therefore, no Coxeter group surjects onto $\mathbb{Z}$.

On the other hand, every HNN-extension surjects onto $\mathbb{Z}$. This is because they have (relative) presentation of the form $$ H=\langle G, t\mid t^{-1}xt=y, x, y\in G\rangle $$ so we can define a map $H\to\mathbb{Z}$ by $t\mapsto 1$, $g\mapsto 0$ for all $g\in G$.

Therefore, no Coxeter group can be an HNN-extension.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much! $\endgroup$
    – shekh
    Commented Jul 12, 2023 at 9:24

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