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For non-negative integers $k\geq 1$ define $$ f_k(x) = \frac{x^k}{(1+x)^2},~x\geq 0. $$ Which of the following statements are true?

  1. For each $k$, $f_k$ is a function of bounded variation on compact intervals
  2. For every $k$, $\int_0^1 f_k(x)~\mathrm{d} x < \infty $
  3. $\lim_{k\to \infty } \int_0^1 f_k(x) \mathrm{d} x$ exists
  4. The sequence of functions $f_k$ converge uniformly on $[0,1]$ as $k\to \infty $

Note that in (4), we have $$f(x) = \begin{cases}0,~\text{ if }x<1 \\ 1/4,~\text{ if }x=1,\end{cases}$$ which is not continuous, and hence the convergence is not uniform.

For option (2), each of the functions is continuous and hence bounded on $[0,1]$ and therefore, the integral $\int_0^1 f_k(x)~\mathrm{d}x$ will be finite.

I got stuck with options (1) and (3). Kindly help me!

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1 Answer 1

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  1. Any function with a bounded derivative is of bounded variation: Apply Mean Value Theorem to prove this. Each $f_k$ has a bounded derivative.

  2. $0 \leq f_k(x)\leq \frac 1 {(1+x)^{2}}$. By Dominated Convergence Theorem we see that $\lim \int_0^{1} f_k(x)dx=\int_0^{1} f(x)dx=0$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the answer and explanation. I was wondering if $\lim_{k\to \infty } \int_0^\infty f_k(x) \mathrm{d} x < \infty$ is true? $\endgroup$
    – I am pi
    Commented May 5, 2023 at 10:55
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    $\begingroup$ @Iampi $\int_0^{\infty} f_k(x)dx=\infty$ for all $k$. $\endgroup$ Commented May 5, 2023 at 11:22
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks! I just checked, it is not even true for $k=1$. $\endgroup$
    – I am pi
    Commented May 5, 2023 at 11:28
  • $\begingroup$ The limit function is $0$ at all points except $x=1$, so its integral is $0$, not $\frac 1 4$. @Iampi $\endgroup$ Commented May 5, 2023 at 12:02
  • $\begingroup$ Sorry, I was wrong! $\endgroup$
    – I am pi
    Commented May 5, 2023 at 12:05

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