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I would like to prove the following implication:

If the characteristic function $\phi$ is differentiable in zero and $X_1\geq0$ a.s., then $E(X_1)=i\phi'(0)<\infty$.

(This is Exercise 15.4.4 iii) of Probability Theory by A. Klenke, 3rd version).

My steps:

  1. If $\phi$ is differentiable in zero, then I could write it as $\phi'(0)=im$, for some $m\in\mathcal{R}$.

  2. Thus, by exercise 15.4.4 ii) of the same book, $(X_1+...+X_n)/n \xrightarrow{n \to \infty } m$ in probability.

  3. By the weak law of large numbers we know that $(X_1+...+X_n)/n \xrightarrow{n \to \infty } E(X_1)$ in probability, where $X_1,X_2,...$ are i.i.d. random variables.

  4. Concluding, by the uniqueness of the limit, $\phi'(0)=im=iE(X_1)$.

I am not sure about my use of the uniqueness of the limit and the fact that I didn't use the non negativity of the random variable.

What am I doing wrong?

Thank you.

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  • $\begingroup$ 3) is valid under the assumption that $X_1$ has finite mean. Here you are asked to prove that $EX_1 <\infty$. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 18, 2023 at 9:31
  • $\begingroup$ Right. It was given as a "hint" to use the weak law of large numbers. I don't get how to use it then. $\endgroup$
    – Enrico
    Commented Mar 18, 2023 at 9:33

1 Answer 1

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There is a version of SLLN's for non-negative r.v's with infinte mean. It says $\frac 1 n(X_1+X_2+\cdots+X_n) \to \infty$ almost surely. Together with the result of exercise 15.4.4. ii) you get a contradiction. Hence, $EX_1$ has to be finite and it must be $i\phi'(0)$.

Ref. Law of large numbers for nonnegative random variables

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you give me a reference about this particular version please? I haven't heard of that. By the way thank for the answer. $\endgroup$
    – Enrico
    Commented Mar 18, 2023 at 9:46
  • $\begingroup$ @Enrico I have added a reference. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 18, 2023 at 9:50

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