Empirically, these $2$ sums are supposed to be equal:
$$\sum_{k=0}^n \sum_{j=0}^k a_j b_{k-j} = \sum_{k=0}^n a_k \sum_{j=0}^{n-k} b_j$$
I failed to prove it with a "change of index" and now I am thinking the only possible way to solve this is to use $\sum _{i+j \leq n}$ which has always been a true nightmare for me.
Here is my unfruitful work: $$ \sum_{k=0}^n \sum_{j=0}^k a_j b_{k-j} = \sum_{k=0}^n \sum_{j=k}^0 a_{k-j} b_j$$