Main question
$$
\int_0^1{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x \right)}{x^x\left( 1-x \right) ^{1-x}}}\mathrm{d}x
$$
This is a famous integral. It can be evaluated by contour integration, and it equals to $\pi/e$.
I tried to generalized it, and I wrote
$$
I_{\alpha}=\int_0^{\alpha}{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x \right)}{x^x\left( \alpha -x \right) ^{\alpha -x}}}\mathrm{d}x
$$
here $\alpha\in\left(0,\infty\right)$. By substituting $x=\frac{\alpha}{e^t+1}$, $I_{\alpha}$ becomes
$$
\alpha ^{1-\alpha}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\frac{e^{t\left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1+e^t \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\sin \left( \frac{\alpha \pi}{e^t+1} \right) \exp \left( \frac{\alpha t}{e^t+1} \right)}\mathrm{d}x
$$
Or equivalently
$$
\alpha ^{1-\alpha}\int_{\infty}^{-\infty}{\frac{e^{t\left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1+e^t \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\sin \left( \frac{-\alpha \pi}{e^t+1} \right) \exp \left( \frac{\alpha t}{e^t+1} \right)}\mathrm{d}x
$$
This implies
\begin{align*}
I_{\alpha}&=\alpha ^{1-\alpha}\Im \left\{ \int_{-\infty}^{\infty}{\frac{e^{t\left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1+e^t \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\exp \left( \frac{\alpha \left( t+i\pi \right)}{e^t+1} \right)}\mathrm{d}x \right\}
\\&
=\alpha ^{1-\alpha}\Im \left\{ \int_{\infty}^{-\infty}{\frac{e^{t\left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1+e^t \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\exp \left( \frac{\alpha \left( t-i\pi \right)}{e^t+1} \right)}\mathrm{d}x \right\}
\end{align*}
Then I tried to apply contour integration here.
$$
f\left( z \right) =\frac{e^{z\left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1-e^z \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\exp \left( \frac{\alpha z}{1-e^z} \right)
$$
The contour I used
I integrate this contour clockwise. By residue theorem $$ \oint_C{f\left( z \right) \mathrm{d}z}=\int_{\psi _-}{+\int_{\psi _+}{+}\int_{\phi _-}{+}\int_{\phi _+}{f\left( z \right) \mathrm{d}z}}=2\pi i\mathrm{Res}\left[ f\left( z \right) ,0 \right] $$ The vertical parts actually vanish when $R$ approaches infinity. As for the horizontal part, since $$ f\left( x+i\pi \right) =\frac{e^{x\left( 1-\alpha \right)}e^{i\pi \left( 1-\alpha \right)}}{\left( 1+e^x \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\exp \left( \frac{x+i\pi}{1+e^x} \right) \\ f\left( x-i\pi \right) =\frac{e^{x\left( 1-\alpha \right)}e^{i\pi \left( \alpha -1 \right)}}{\left( 1+e^x \right) ^{2-\alpha}}\exp \left( \frac{x-i\pi}{1+e^x} \right) $$ therefore, by adding the horizontal part together, there is $$ \Im \left\{\int_{\psi _-}{+\int_{\psi _+}{f\left( z \right) \mathrm{d}z}}\right\} = \frac{2\cos \left( \pi \left( \alpha -1 \right) \right)}{\alpha ^{1-\alpha}} I_{\alpha} $$ So I have $$ I_{\alpha}=\alpha ^{1-\alpha}\Im \left\{ \frac{\pi i\mathrm{Res}\left[ f\left( z \right) ,0 \right]}{\cos \left( \pi \left( \alpha -1 \right) \right)} \right\} $$ Then I was stuck. How do I calculate this residue? It's somehow very difficult for me... Have I done anything worng?
Addendum 1
There are few questions stemmed form this question. Such as $$ J_{\alpha}=\int_0^{\alpha}{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x/\alpha \right)}{x^x\left( \alpha -x \right) ^{\alpha -x}}}\mathrm{d}x \\ K_{\alpha ,\beta}=\int_0^{\alpha}{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x \right)}{x^{x+\beta}\left( \alpha -x \right) ^{\alpha -x}}}\mathrm{d}x \\ L_{\alpha ,\beta}=\int_0^{\alpha}{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x/\alpha \right)}{x^{x+\beta}\left( \alpha -x \right) ^{\alpha -x}}}\mathrm{d}x $$ which I doubt a closed form even exist.
Another interesting thing, it seems that $$ K_{1,1}=\int_0^1{\frac{\sin \left( \pi x \right)}{x^{1+x}\left( 1-x \right) ^{1-x}}}\mathrm{d}x=\pi $$
Addendum 2
For $\alpha=n\in\mathbb{N}$, $e^{i\pi\left(1-\alpha\right)}$ and $e^{i\pi\left(\alpha-1\right)}$ actually evaluates in the same sign so the expression simplifies to
$$I_n=n ^{1-n}\Im \left\{ \pi i\mathrm{Res}\left[ f\left( z \right) ,0 \right]\right\} $$
and this actually evaluates to
$$I_n=\frac{\pi}{e}\delta_{n,1}$$
Given by what desmos graphed this seems to be truth
Plus, I was noted by the comment that my previous method has a branch cut problem. So I might want to modify contour $C$ a little bit to exclude the branch cut. I took a look at $f(z)$ and it seems that there're branch points in $i2\mathbb{Z}\pi$. My thought currently is to aim the brach of the ones bigger than $0$ upward and the rest of it downward and make a little "key hole branch" from below. Don't know if that works tho.