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Take $b\in\mathbb{R}$. Suppose $X_n\to X$ in distribution and suppose $Y_n\to y$ in probability, where $y$ is a constant. How to prove $$\Bbb P(Xy\leq b) \leq \liminf_{n\to\infty}\Bbb P(X_nY_n\leq b)?$$

I've asked the question before but I didn't get any answer. So I tried myself and hopefully someone can follow my reasoning.

Note: I know that this follows from Slutsky's theorem, but I'm trying to use this question to prove Slutsky's theorem.


My try: Since $X_n\to X$ in distribution, then given $\epsilon>0$ there an $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that for all $n\geq N$ $$\Bbb P(Xy\leq b)\leq\epsilon+\Bbb P(X_ny\leq b),\;\;\text{ and so }\;\;\; \Bbb P(Xy\leq b)\leq\epsilon+\inf_{n\geq N}\Bbb P(X_ny\leq b).$$ Now we need to use the fact that $Y_n\to y$ in probability. We can write the set $$\{X_ny\leq b\}=\{X_ny\leq b,Y_n\in (y-\epsilon,y+\epsilon) \}\cup \{X_ny\leq b,Y_n\not\in (y-\epsilon,y+\epsilon) \},$$ and so $$ \{X_ny\leq b\}\subseteq\underbrace{\{X_nY_n\leq b+\epsilon}_{:=A_n} \}\cup \underbrace{\{Y_n\not\in (y-\epsilon,y+\epsilon) \}}_{:=B_n},$$ Now we know that $\liminf_{n\to\infty}\Bbb P(B_n)=0$. Now let's look at $A_n$. For the sake of simplicity let's assume $X_n>0$. Then we have that
$$A_n=\{X_nY_n\leq b\}\cup \underbrace{\{b<X_nY_n\leq b+\epsilon\}}_{C_n}.$$ In total, we have that $$\Bbb P(X_ny\leq b)\leq \Bbb P(B_n) + \Bbb P(X_nY_n\leq b)+\mathbb{P}(C_n) $$ and $$ \Bbb P(Xy\leq b)\leq \Bbb P(X_nY_n\leq b)+\epsilon + \Bbb P(B_n) +\mathbb{P}(C_n) $$ and so finally we have made the set $\{X_nY_n\leq b\}$ appear. Taking $\liminf$ we have that $$ \Bbb P(Xy\leq b)\leq \liminf_{n\to\infty}\Bbb P(X_nY_n\leq b)+\epsilon +\liminf_{n\to\infty}\mathbb{P}(C_n) $$ But then is it possible to bound the probability of $C_n=\{b<X_nY_n\leq b+\epsilon\}$ as a function of $\epsilon$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Do you know anything more about $X$? It doesn't seem to be correct. Note that $X_nY_n\to Xy$ in distribution under your hypothesis. The conclusion from one of the equivalent criterion of convergence says that $\limsup P(X_nY_n\leq b)\leq P(Xy\leq b)$. $\endgroup$
    – Raghav
    Commented Nov 15, 2022 at 21:58
  • $\begingroup$ I'm trying to prove that $X_nY_n \to Xy$ in distribution. That is the purpose of my question. I already proved that $\limsup P(X_nY_n\leq b)\leq P(Xy\leq b)$. Now I need the $\liminf$ inequality. $\endgroup$
    – demlevi33
    Commented Nov 16, 2022 at 10:05
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    $\begingroup$ It is only true if $b$ is a continuity point of $Xy$ . Otherwise it should not be true. The equivalent condition of $X_{n}\xrightarrow{d}X$ if and only if $\lim\inf P(X_{n}\in G)\geq P(X\in G)$ for all open sets $G$. As you can see $(-\infty,b]$ is not open. What you can certainly prove is that for $\lim\inf P(X_{n}Y_{n}<b)\geq P(Xy<b)$. And as you can see if $b$ is a continuity point then you'll get $\leq b$ also . However I am struggling to come up with a specific counter example. It should be easy though , I am just not seeing it now. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2022 at 12:10

1 Answer 1

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As I said in the comments , what you claim is true if you assume $b$ is a continuity point(which is what you want to prove when showing convergence of the cdf's ).

I'll show in two steps.

We show that for any compatcly supported continuous $f$ , we have $E(f(X_{n}Y_{n}))\to E(f(Xy))$ .

Fix $\epsilon$ positive.

Then by uniform continuity, there exists $\delta(\epsilon)>0$ such that $|f(x)-f(y)|<\epsilon$ when $|x-y|<\delta$ .

Now $\bigg|E(f(X_{n}Y_{n})-f(Xy))\bigg|=\bigg|E(f(X_{n}Y_{n})-E(f(X_{n}y)+E(f(X_{n}y)-Ef(Xy)\bigg|$ .

Now as $Y_{n}\xrightarrow{P} y$ . Hence $P(|Y_{n}-y|\geq \delta)\to 0$ .

Hence we have $|E(f(X_{n}Y_{n})-E(f(X_{n}y)|\leq \\\bigg|\bigg(E(f(X_{n}Y_{n})-E(f(X_{n}y)\bigg)\mathbf{1}_{|Y_{n}-y|< \delta}\bigg| +\bigg|\bigg(E((f(X_{n}Y_{n})-E(f(X_{n}y))\bigg)\mathbf{1}_{|Y_{n}-y|\geq \delta}\bigg| $

Which can be bounded by

$$\epsilon + \sup_{x}|f|\cdot P(|Y_{n}-y|\geq \delta)$$ which can be made less than $2\epsilon$ by choosing $n$ large enough.

And the last term $|E(f(X_{n}y))-E(f(Xy))|\to 0$ as $X_{n}y\xrightarrow{d}Xy$ . (If you don't know this already, this is an equivalent criteria for convergence in distribution. You can directly use Skorohod's Representation theorem(to make it easier, it is not necessary though) and DCT to prove this.

Now let $g=\mathbf{1}_{(-\infty,b)}$ . Take $f_{n}$ to be a sequence of uniformly continuous functions such that $f_{n}$ decrease to $g$. You can certainly do this by just considering $\mathbf{1}_{(-\infty,b-\frac{1}{n}]}$ and then just linearly joining to the $x$ axis.

$P(X_{n}Y_{n}<b)=E(g(X_{n}Y_{n}))\geq E(f_{m}(X_{n}Y_{n}))\to E(f_{m}(Xy))=P(Xy\leq b-\frac{1}{m}) $

Now by monotone convergence theorem $E(f_{m}(Xy))\to E(g(Xy))$ and hence $P(Xy\leq b-\frac{1}{m})\to P(Xy <b)$

Thus $P(X_{n}Y_{n}<b)\geq P(Xy<b)$ for all $n$ large enough. And thus

Thus $$\lim\inf_{n}P(X_{n}Y_{n}\leq b)\geq \lim\inf_{n}P(X_{n}Y_{n}<b)\geq P(Xy<b)$$.

And as $b$ is a continuity point, you have $$\lim\inf_{n}P(X_{n}Y_{n}\leq b)\geq P(Xy<b)=P(Xy\leq b)$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Just to check: some typos in the last inequalities in the probabilities? $\endgroup$
    – Snoop
    Commented Nov 16, 2022 at 12:33
  • $\begingroup$ I have edited thanks. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 18, 2022 at 10:57

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