Consider Borel probability measures $\mu_n, \mu$ ($n \in \mathbb{N}$) on $\mathbb{R}$ such that
- $\mu_n \to \mu$ weakly (test functions are continuous and bounded);
- $E_{X \sim \mu_n}[X] = 0$ for each $n \in \mathbb{N}$;
- $E_{X \sim \mu_n}[X^2] = 1$ for each $n \in \mathbb{N}$.
Can we conclude that (i) $E_{X \sim \mu}[X] = 0$ or (ii) $E_{X \sim \mu}[X^2] = 1$?
Famously, $\mu_n \to \mu$ weakly does not imply convergence in first moments. The typical example is $\mu_n := (1-n^{-1})\delta_0 + n^{-1} \delta_n$, so that $\mu_n \to \delta_0$ while $E_{X \sim \mu_n}[X]=1$ and $E_{X \sim \delta_0}[X] = 0$. This isn't a counterexample for our purposes, however, because $E_{X \sim \mu_n}[X^2] = n$.