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Let $T$ be a linear transformation from $\Bbb{R}^3$ into $\Bbb{R}^2$, and let $U$ be a linear transformation from $\Bbb{R}^2$ into $\Bbb{R}^3$. Prove that the transformation $U\circ T$ is not invertible. Generalize the theorem.

Potential approach: Assume towards contradiction, $U\circ T$ is invertible. By exercise 4 section 2 of Munkres’ topology, $T$ is injective and $U$ is surjective. We’ll only use $T$ is injective. By this post, $|\Bbb{R}|$ $=|\Bbb{R}^2|$ $=|\Bbb{R}^3|$. Is the following lemma hold: If $f:A\to B$ is injective and $|A|=|B|$, then $f$ is surjective ? Let assume for a moment lemma holds, $T$ is surjective. So $T$ is a bijective linear map. So $\Bbb{R}^3\cong \Bbb{R}^2$. By exercise 6 section 3.3, $\mathrm{dim}(\Bbb{R}^3)$ $= \mathrm{dim}(\Bbb{R}^2)$ $=3=2$. Thus we reach contradiction. Hence $U\circ T$ is not even injective. Can you please verify lemma?


Generalize theorem:

Let $V,W$ be $n,m$-dimensional vector space over field $F$ such that $n\gt m$. If $T\in L(V,W)$ and $U\in L(W,V)$, then $U\circ T$ is neither injective nor surjecctive. In particular, $U\circ T$ is not bijective.

Approach(1): Assume towards contradiction, $U\circ T$ is injective. By exercise 4 section 2 of Munkres’ topology, $T$ is injective. So $N_T=\{0_V\}$. $V$ is finite dimensional vector space. By rank nullity theorem, $n=\mathrm{dim}(V)$ $= \mathrm{dim}(N_T)+ \mathrm{dim}(R_T)$ $= \mathrm{dim}(R_T)$. Since $R_T\leq W$ and $\mathrm{dim}(W)=m$, we have $\mathrm{dim}(R_T)\leq \mathrm{dim}(W)=m$. So $n= \mathrm{dim}(R_T)\leq m$. But $n\gt m$. Thus we reach contradiction. Hence $U\circ T$ is not injective. Assume towards contradiction, $U\circ T$ is surjective. By exercise 4 section 2 of Munkres’ topology, $U$ is surjective. So $R_U=V$. $W$ is finite dimensional vector space. By rank nullity theorem, $m=\mathrm{dim}(W)$ $=\mathrm{dim}(N_U)+ \mathrm{dim}(R_U)$ $= \mathrm{dim}(N_U)+ \mathrm{dim}(V)$ $= \mathrm{dim}(N_U)+n$. So $m= \mathrm{dim}(N_U)+n$. which implies $\mathrm{dim}(N_U)$ $=m-n\lt 0$. Thus we reach contradiction. Hence $U\circ T$ is not surjective. So $U\circ T$ is neither injective nor surjective.

Approach(2): Assume towards contradiction, $U\circ T$ is injective. By exercise 4 section 2 of Munkres’ topology, $T$ is injective. Let $B_V=\{\alpha_1,,…,\alpha_n\}$ be basis of $V$. So $(T(\alpha_1),…,T(\alpha_n))$ is sequence in $W$. If $T(\alpha_i)=T(\alpha_j)$, for some $i,j\in J_n$, then $(T(\alpha_1),…,T(\alpha_n))$ is dependent. If $T(\alpha_i)\neq T(\alpha_j)$, $\forall i\neq j$, then $(T(\alpha_1),…,T(\alpha_n))$ is dependent, since $|\{ T(\alpha_1),…,T(\alpha_n)\}|=n\gt m$. So $\exists (c_1,…,c_n)\in F^n$ such that $c_i\neq 0_F$ for some $i\in J_n$ and $\sum_{i=1}^nc_i\cdot_W T(\alpha_i)=0_W$. Since $\{\alpha_1,…,\alpha_n\}$ is independent, we have $x=\sum_{i=1}^nc_i\cdot_V \alpha_i \neq 0_V$. So $T(x)$ $=T(\sum_{i=1}^nc_i\cdot_V \alpha_i)$ $= \sum_{i=1}^nc_i\cdot_W T(\alpha_i)=0_W$. So $0\neq x\in N_T$. Which implies $T$ is not injective. Thus we reach contradiction. Hence $U\circ T$ is not injective. Assume towards contradiction, $U\circ T$ is surjective. By exercise 4 section 2 of Munkres’ topology, $U$ is surjective. Let $B_W=\{\beta_1,…,\beta_m\}$ be basis of $W$. So $(U(\beta_1),…,U(\beta_m))$ is sequence in $V$. $|(U(\beta_1),…,U(\beta_m))|\leq m\lt n$. By theorem 4 corollary 2 section 2.3, $\mathrm{span}(U(\beta_1),…,U(\beta_m))\neq V$. So $\exists x\in V$ such that $x\notin \mathrm{span}(U(\beta_1),…,U(\beta_m))$. By exercise 8 section 3.1, $\mathrm{span}(U(\beta_1),…,U(\beta_m))=R_U$. Which implies $U$ is not surjective. Thus we reach contradiction. Hence $U\circ T$ is surjective. So $U\circ T$ is neither injective nor surjective.

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2 Answers 2

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The lemma is false. Consider the case $A=B=\mathbb{Z}$ and $f:\mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}$ defined by $f(x)=2x$. Then $f$ is injective but not surjective because $1\notin Im(f)$.

For the exercise problem, just notice that $U$ is surjective will imply that $3=\dim \mathbb{R}^3=\dim \operatorname{Im}(f)=\dim \mathbb{R}^2-\dim \ker(U)=2-\dim\ker(U)$. This is a contradiction. In linear algebra, dimension is a more precise measure of a space than cardinality.

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    $\begingroup$ I also searched for alternative proof on google. I find one, which uses different argument. But I can’t understand following step: Let $\{α_1,α_2,α_3\}$ be a basis for $R^3$. Then $T(α_1),T(α_2),T(α_3)$ must be linearly dependent in $R^2$, because $R^2$ has dimension $2$. So suppose $b_1 T(α_1)+b_2 T(α_2)+b_3 T(α_3)=0$ and not all $b_1,b_2,b_3$ are zero.Then $b_1α_1 +b_2α_2 +b_3α_3 \neq 0$. Why $b_1α_1 +b_2α_2 +b_3α_3 \neq 0$? $\endgroup$
    – user264745
    Commented Jul 20, 2022 at 12:02
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    $\begingroup$ If $b_1α_1 +b_2α_2 +b_3α_3 = 0$ , then by L.I of $\{\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3\}$ implies $b_1=b_2=b_3=0$ but you assume $b_1, b_2, b_3$ not all zero. In other words only combination of $\alpha_1,\alpha_2,\alpha_3$ that can produce the zero vector is the trivial combination (all coefficients are $0$) $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 21, 2022 at 8:56
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    $\begingroup$ @LostinSpace Thank you so much for the reply. $\endgroup$
    – user264745
    Commented Jul 21, 2022 at 9:18
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A linear map $T:\Bbb{R}^3\to \Bbb{R}^2$ can't be injective. Since $\dim(R(T)) \le 2$ , $\dim(\ker T) =3-\dim(R(T)) \ge 1$

Let us choose $0\neq v\in \ker T$ , the

$(U\circ T) (v) =U(T(v))=0$

Hence $\dim (\ker U\circ T) \ge 1$

Since $U\circ T$ is not injective, it can't be invertible.


For the generalization:

A linear map $T:V\to W$ (where $\dim V=n>m=\dim W$ ) can't be injective. Since $\dim(R(T)) \le m$ , $\dim(\ker T) =n-\dim(R(T)) \ge n-m>0$

Let us choose $0\neq v\in \ker T$ , the

$(U\circ T) (v) =U(T(v))=0$

Hence $\dim (\ker U\circ T) \ge 1$

Since $U\circ T$ is not injective, it can't be bijective and invertible.

(a linear map between two same finite dimensional vector spaces over the same base field is injective iff surjective iff bijective).

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    $\begingroup$ Damm… your proof is so slick and clean! Thank you so much for the answer. $\endgroup$
    – user264745
    Commented Jul 21, 2022 at 9:22
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    $\begingroup$ You noticed really nice fact “a linear map between two same finite dimensional vector spaces over the same base field is injective iff surjective iff bijective”. With that result we don’t have to prove explicitly $U\circ T$ is not surjective. $\endgroup$
    – user264745
    Commented Jul 21, 2022 at 18:18
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    $\begingroup$ Exactly. Only check for $\ker$ . $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 21, 2022 at 18:19

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