If you are patient, work using only rational numbers and arbitrary precision.
Perform a binary search for solving, as close as possible the equation $$f(p)=-2\pi+\sum_{i=1}^\infty \arccos \left(1-\frac{2 p^{2 i+1}}{\left(1+p^i\right) \left(1+p^{i+1}\right)} \right)=0$$
First, notice that, if $p <1$ the series is convergent since
$$\arccos \left(1-\epsilon \right)=\sqrt{2 \epsilon }+O\left(\epsilon ^{3/2}\right)$$
Then
$$a_i=\arccos \left(1-\frac{2 p^{2 i+1}}{\left(1+p^i\right) \left(1+p^{i+1}\right)} \right)\quad \implies \quad
\lim_{i\to \infty } \, \frac {a_{i+1}}{a_{i}}=p$$
For $p=0.82$ we have (with $R^2=0.99977$) $$\log(a_i) \sim 0.463189- 0.196468\, i$$
All of the above let thinking about a quite fast convergence.
You could find
$$f\left(\frac{823930515\color{red}{69999}}{100000000000000}\right)=-1.042\times 10^{-9}$$
$$f\left(\frac{823930515\color{red}{70000}}{100000000000000}\right)=+8.229\times 10^{-10}$$ This number is not recognized by inverse symbolic calculators.
Edit
Newton method seems to be quite efficient for this problem. Using $p_0=\frac {41}{50}$, the successive iterates are
$$\left(
\begin{array}{cc}
n & p_n \\
0 & 0.82000000 \\
1 & 0.82401860 \\
2 & 0.82393056 \\
3 & 0.82393052
\end{array}
\right)$$