I am currently reading Spivak's Calculus. I have an older version. In chapter 17 the author presents a definition of the logarithm function as $\log x=\int_1^x \frac{1}{t}dt$.
He begins in searching the derivative of a function which satisfies $f(x+y) = f(x) \cdot f(y)$, finds $f'(x) = \alpha \cdot f(x)$. Using the inverse function $f^{-1} = \log_{10}$ he arrives at $\log_{10}' = \frac{1}{f(f^{-1}(x))} = \frac{1}{\alpha x}$. Since $\log_{10}$ is the anti-derivative of $\frac{1}{\alpha x}$ he uses the second fundamental theorem of calculus to do the following integration:
$$\frac{1}{\alpha} \int_1^x \frac{1}{t}dt = \log_{10}x - \log_{10}1 = \log_{10}x$$
Now my question is, why does the factor $\frac{1}{\alpha}$ vanish in this equation?
I hope that I have provided enough intermediate steps to give some context. The whole argument is rather lengthy to present here. If otherwise, please comment.