In the book that I am using they left the proof to the theorem "as a exercise" so I would like to give it a go. Please let me know if I am incorrect.
Let $A$ and $B$ be subsets of a metric space $X$.
$\Rightarrow$
$\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B) \subseteq A \cap B$.
Now as $A \cap B\subseteq A $ and $A \cap B\subseteq B$,
we have $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B) \subseteq A$ and $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B) \subseteq B$.
As $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B)$ is an open set, thus $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B)\subseteq\operatorname{Int}(A)$ and $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B)\subseteq\operatorname{Int}(B)$,
thus $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B)\subseteq\operatorname{Int}(A)\cap \operatorname{Int}(B)$
$\Leftarrow$
As $\operatorname{Int}(A)\subseteq A$ and $\operatorname{Int}(B)\subseteq B$,
thus $\operatorname{Int}(A)\cap\operatorname{Int}(B) \subseteq A\cap B$.
As both $\operatorname{Int}(A)$ and $\operatorname{Int}(B)$ are open sets, and a intersection of finitely many open set is open,
thus $\operatorname{Int}(A)\cap\operatorname{Int}(B)$ itself is open.
Thus $\operatorname{Int}(A)\cap\operatorname{Int}(B) \subseteq\operatorname{Int}(A\cap B)$.
Thus we arrive at the conclusion that $\operatorname{Int}(A \cap B)= \operatorname{Int}(A) \cap\operatorname{Int}(B)$.