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In trying to find a proof for the proposition below i came up with the following solution, which i haven't found on the internet. Can anyone tell me, if this proof is correct?

Proposition: If $f$ is a strictly increasing function, then $f^{-1}$ is also strictly increasing.

Proof: Let $(a,f(a)))$ and $(b,f(b))$ be two arbitrarily pairs in $f$ with $a<b$. Since $f$ is strictly increasing this implies that $f(a)<f(b)$. Now, the pairs $(f(a),a))$ and $(f(b),b))$ are in $f^{-1}$ with $f(a)<f(b)$. To complete the proof we must verify, that this implies that $a<b$. But we know already that this is true by assumption. $qed$

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  • $\begingroup$ It's not totally right. It's an acceptable proof, If one just want to know the ideas, but not an actual proof. For example, who guarantees that all elements in domain are image by f of some element and such element is actually image of the inverse? Is a known fact, but at least It should be used in your proof. I suggest you start as usual:"let a,b in Img f with $a<b$, thus [...], we conclude that $f^{(-1)}(a)<f^{(-1)}(b)$". Step by step, basically. $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 27, 2022 at 11:35

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With the given answer and tips i make a second try. Hope this get's better. I included the existence of $f^{-1}$ in the proposition, since i didn‘t want to proof it here.

Proposition: If $f$ is a strictly increasing function and it’s inverse $f^{-1}$ exists, then $f^{−1}$ is also strictly increasing.

Proof: Let $f:X\to Y$ be a strictly increasing function with inverse $f^{-1}$. Then for all $x_1,x_2\in X$ we have unique $y_1=f(x_1),y_2=f(x_2) \in Y$ with $x_1<x_2 \implies f(x_1)<f(x_2)\iff y_1<y_2$. We now have to show that $y_1<y_2\implies f^{-1}(y_1)<f^{-1}(y_2)$. But since, per definition of the inverse function, $f^{-1}(y_1)=x_1$ and $f^{-1}(y_2)=x_2$. So we already know this is true. $\blacksquare$

Any tips or possible improvements welcome.

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I will establish this result as follows:

We start with $y < z$, where $y, z$ are any two points in the range of $f$.

Then $y = f(a)$ and $z = f(b)$, for some $a$ and $b$.

Since $f$ is strictly increasing, $a < b$; otherwise, we get a contradiction as it is given that $y = f(a) < z = f(b)$.

To show that $f^{-1}$ is strictly increasing, we must show that

$$ f^{-1}[y)] < f^{-1}[z]. $$

i.e. $$ f^{-1}[f(a))] < f^{-1}[f(b)]. $$ But $f^{-1}[f(a)] = a$ and $f^{-1}[f(b)] = b$.

Thus, we must show that $a < b$, but this is true.

Hence, $f^{-1}$ is also strictly increasing, when $f$ is bijective and strictly increasing.

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