This question is related to this one. Any definition that allows a uniqueness proof should let us prove the desired limit. It turns out that continuity is not required for this. So long as we carefully specify the wavelength in terms of $\pi$, along with the Pythagorean and angle sum and identities, we can prove uniqueness. In particular, it can be proven that there exists a unique pair of functions $(\cos,\sin)$ mapping $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ which satisfy the following conditions.
- The Pythagorean identity $\cos(x)^2+\sin(x)^2=1$
- The angle sum formulae
$$\cos(x+y)=\cos(x)\cos(y)-\sin(x)\sin(y)$$
$$\sin(x+y)=\sin(x)\cos(y)+\cos(x)\sin(y)$$
- The wavelength condition, $\sin(\pi)=0$ while $0<\sin(x)$ for any $x\in(0,\pi)$
By proving that this characterization is unique, and that the ordinary Taylor series for $(\cos,\sin)$ satisfies all these conditions, we prove the desired limit and much more. The proofs of these claims can be found below.
We first show that the functions $(\cos,\sin)$, if they exist, are unique. To do this, we translate our four conditions into a more manageable state. Define the function $H(x)=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$, which has real part $\Re(H(x))=\cos(x)$ and imaginary part $\Im(H(x))=\sin(x)$. Using this definition, our conditions are point by point equivalent to the following.
- $|H(x)|=1$
- $H(x+y)=H(x)H(y)$
- $H(\pi)\in\mathbb{R}$ while $\Im(H(x))>0$ for any $x\in(0,\pi)$.
To show $(\cos,\sin)$ is unique, we instead prove that $H$ is unique. Since $H(\pi)\in\mathbb{R}$ has $|H(\pi)|=1$, then $H(\frac{\pi}{2})^4=H(\pi)^2=1$, so that $H(\frac{\pi}{2})\in\{1,i,-1,-i\}$. Since $\Im(H(\frac{\pi}{2}))>0$, then $H(\frac{\pi}{2})=i$. Using this, we find that $H(x+\frac{\pi}{2})=H(x)H(\frac{\pi}{2})=iH(x)$, thus $\sin(x+\frac{\pi}{2})=\cos(x)$ and likewise $\cos(x+\frac{\pi}{2})=-\sin(x)$. It follows that for $x\in(0,\frac{\pi}{2})$ we have $\sin(x)>0$ and $\cos(x)=\sin(x+\frac{\pi}{2})>0$, thus $H(x)$ is in the first quadrant. For $x\in(\frac{\pi}{2},\pi)$, we have $H(x-\frac{\pi}{2})=-iH(x)$ in the first quadrant, thus $H(x)$ is in the second quadrant. Continuing like this, any $x\in(\pi,\frac{3\pi}{2})$ has $H(x)$ in the third quadrant, and likewise any $x\in(\frac{3\pi}{2},2\pi)$ has $H(x)$ in the fourth quadrant. Since $H(2\pi)=H(\pi)^2=1$, then $H(x+2\pi)=H(x)$, so the quadrant of $H(x)$ is entirely determined by $x$.
Let $H_1,H_2$ be two functions satisfying our conditions, then we prove $H_1=H_2$. Let $I(x)=\frac{H_1(x)}{H_2(x)}$, and notice that $|I(x)|=\frac{|H_1(x)|}{|H_2(x)|}=1$, and likewise $I(x+y)=\frac{H_1(x)H_1(y)}{H_2(x)H_2(y)}=I(x)I(y)$. Therefore if we let $C(x)=\Re(I(x))$ and $S(x)=\Im(I(x))$, the pair $(C,S)$ satisfy our conditions 1 and 2. Since $H_1$ and $H_2$ are always in the same quadrant, and $H_1=H_2\cdot I$, we must have $\Re(I(x))>0$ for all $x$, thus $C(x)>0$. Let $\sigma$ be the infimum value of $C(x)$, and notice the following.
$$C(x) \geq C(x)^2 = \frac{(2C(x)^2-1)+1}{2} = \frac{C(2x)+1}{2} \geq \frac{\sigma+1}{2}$$
The first inequality holds since $C(x)\in (0,1]$, where $C(x)\leq 1$ follows from the Pythagorean identity. The equalities after that follow from a basic rearrangement of the double angle formula (derived from conditions 1 and 2 on $I$). The last inequality follows from $C(2x)\geq \sigma$. Since $\sigma$ is the infimum of $C(x)$, and $C(x)\geq\frac{\sigma+1}{2}$, it follows that $\sigma\geq \frac{\sigma+1}{2}$, which is equivalent to $\sigma\geq 1$. It follows that $C(x)\geq 1$ for all $x$, but since $C(x)\leq 1$ then $C(x)=1$ for all $x$, therefore $S(x)^2=1-C(x)^2 = 0$ so that $I(x)=1$ is constant, proving $H_1=H_2$.
To finish our demonstration, let $\cos,\sin$ be defined by the usual Taylor series, then we show that these satisfy our conditions, and are thus the unique solution. As some preliminary observations, notice that by the Taylor series we have $\sin(-x)=-\sin(x)$ and $\cos(-x)=\cos(x)$. Let $\exp$ be the natural exponential function defined by its power series for any complex number, which has $\exp(0)=1$. Euler's formula comes out very quickly from this, that $\exp(ix)=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$. We can also prove the product formula for exponentials $\exp(x+y)=\exp(x)\exp(y)$, which works even if $x,y$ are complex numbers.
A simple consequence of the above observations is that $\exp(i(x+y))=\exp(ix)\exp(iy)$. Since $H(x)=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)=\exp(ix)$, this proves $H(x+y)=H(x)H(y)$, condition 2, the angle sum formulas. Applying the negative angle formulas, we find that $H(-x)=\overline{H(x)}$ is the complex conjugate, thus $1=H(0)=H(x)H(-x)=|H(x)|^2$ proves condition 1, the Pythagorean identity.
Previously we showed that if some function $I$ satisfied our conditions 1 and 2, and also obeyed $\Re(I(x))>0$, then $I$ would be constant. By the contrapositive, since $H$ is not constant, $H$ fails one of the three premises. Since $H$ satisfies conditions 1 and 2, it must be the case that some $x$ has $\Re(H(x))\leq 0$, that is to say, $\cos(x)\leq 0$. Since $\cos$ is even, we can assume that $x\geq 0$. Now we can take the infimum $\ell=\inf\{x\geq 0 : \cos(x)\leq 0\}$. Due to continuity and $\cos(0)=1$, we must have $\ell>0$. Taking the limit from the right side, $\cos(\ell)\leq 0$, but taking a limit from the left side, we instead get $\cos(\ell)\geq 0$, so in fact $\cos(\ell)=0$. Now we get the following.
$$\sin(2\ell)=2\sin(\ell)\cos(\ell)=0$$
As above, there exists $x>0$ for which $\sin(x)=0$, namely $x=2\ell$. Let $\lambda=\inf\{x>0 : \sin(x)=0\}$, and notice that since $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(x)}{x}=1>0$ by the Taylor series, then $\lambda>0$. By continuity we get $\sin(\lambda)=0$, and since $\sin$ is positive in a right-side neighborhood of $0$, then all $x\in(0,\lambda)$ must have $\sin(x)>0$. Now we just prove $\lambda=\pi$.
Recall that $H(x)=\cos(x)+i\sin(x)$ has $|H(x)|=1$ for all $x$, thus $H$ stays on the unit circle. More specifically for $x\in(0,\lambda)$ we have $\Im(H(x))>0$, so on this range, $H$ stays on the upper half unit circle. Analyzing the taylor series, we find that $\frac{d}{dt}\cos(t)=-\sin(t)$, so for $t\in(0,\lambda)$ we have $\frac{d}{dt}\cos(t)=-\sin(t)<0$, thus $\cos$ is strictly decreasing, so $H(x)$ is injective over $t\in[0,\lambda]$. Since $H(0)=1$ while $H(\lambda)=-1$, by continuity $H(x)$ is surjective to the upper half unit circle over $x\in[0,\lambda]$. It follows that over the range $[0,\lambda]$, we have $H$ smoothly and bijectively parametrizing the upper half unit circle. We can therefore calculate $\pi$ as follows.
$$\pi = \int_0^\lambda \left|\frac{d}{dt}H(t)\right|dt = \int_0^\lambda \left|\frac{d}{dt}\exp(it)\right|dt = \int_0^\lambda |i\exp(it)|dt = \int_0^\lambda 1dt = \lambda$$
Indeed, if we consider $t$ to be time, then $H(t)$ traces the upper half unit circle, with its velocity being the derivative $\frac{d}{dt}H(t)$. The magnitude of the velocity is its speed, so by integrating over the speed, we produce the total length of the path traveled, which is the arclength of the upper half unit circle, exactly $\pi$. Since the integral reduces to $\lambda$, then $\lambda=\pi$, proving that our $(\cos,\sin)$ satisfy condition 3.