I can't understand how to obtain this equality from the deduction of Kelvin's Theorem: $$\oint_C\boldsymbol{u}\cdot(\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{s}\cdot\nabla)\boldsymbol{u}=\frac{1}{2}\oint_C\nabla(|\boldsymbol{u}|^2)\cdot\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{s}$$ where $\boldsymbol{u}$ is the velocity vector and $\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{s}$ is an element along the closed contour. I have known about this vector identity: $$\boldsymbol{u}\cdot\nabla\boldsymbol{u}=\nabla(|\boldsymbol{u}|^2/2)-\boldsymbol{u}\times(\nabla\times\boldsymbol{u})$$ Combine these two equalities and I will obtain this, $$\oint_C\boldsymbol{u}\times(\nabla\times\boldsymbol{u})\cdot\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{s}=0$$ Why on earth could this term be zero???
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$\begingroup$ You can't learn anything about $\boldsymbol{u}\cdot(\mathrm{d}\boldsymbol{s}\cdot\nabla)\boldsymbol{u}$ from $\boldsymbol{u}\cdot\nabla\boldsymbol{u}$. Instead, work in index notation with Einstein notation viz. $u_i(\mathrm{d}s_j\partial_j)u_i=u_iu_{i,\,j}\mathrm{d}s_j=\frac12(u_iu_i)_j\mathrm{d}s_j$. $\endgroup$– J.G.Commented Feb 24, 2022 at 7:52
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$\begingroup$ @J.G. thx a lot! I've understood! $\endgroup$– JasmineCommented Feb 24, 2022 at 8:08
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