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Assume that $f:[a,b]\rightarrow \mathbb R$ is continuous and $g:\mathbb R\rightarrow \mathbb R$ is Lipschitz continuous. Now define $$ h(x):=\int_a^b g(t-x)f(t)dt. $$ I want to show that $h$ is Lipschitz continuous.

My attempt of proof is:

Since $g$ is Lipschitz continuous, then there exists $K>0$ such that $$|g(x)-g(y)|\leq K |x-y|.$$ In particular we have \begin{eqnarray} |g(t-x)-g(t-y)|\leq K |t-x-(t-y)|=K|x-y| \qquad \qquad (1) \end{eqnarray} and multiplying by $|f(t)|$ we obtain $$\big|g(t-x)-g(t-y)\big|\big|f(t)\big| = \big|\left[g(t-x)-g(t-y)\right] f(t)\big|\leq K |f(t)||x-y|$$ Since $g$ is also continuous then $g$ is Riemann integrable on $[a,b]$ and thus \begin{eqnarray*} \left|h(x)-h(y)\right| &=& \left|\int_a^b g(t-x)f(t)dt-\int_a^b g(t-y)f(t)dt\right| \\ &=& \bigg|\int_a^b\left[g(t-x)-g(t-y)\right] f(t)dt\bigg| \\ &\leq & \int_a^b \big|\left[g(t-x)-g(t-y)\right] f(t)\big|dt\\ &\leq & \int_a^b K |f(t)||x-y|dt\\ &=& \mathcal K|x-y| \end{eqnarray*} where $\mathcal K= K\int_a^bf(t)dt$ is a real constant. Hence $h$ is Lipschitz continuous. $\blacksquare$

My concern is about the use of inequality (1). I am not sure if I can do that. Do I need to specify the value of $t$? For example, mentioning that $t\in[a,b]$.

If you have some advice and feedback about this proof (maybe it is incorrect), I would appreciate it. Thanks.

Edit: Changed "$K\in \mathbb R$" for $K>0$ in the first line.

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  • $\begingroup$ Your proof is fine. However, you should $k>0$ and $t \in [a,b]$ which you do not know the behaviour of $f$ outside the interval $[a,b]$. $\endgroup$
    – Mr. Proof
    Commented Feb 17, 2022 at 1:45
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    $\begingroup$ Using (1) is not an issue since it holds for any $x,y$ you can replace by $t-x,t-y$. $\endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    Commented Feb 17, 2022 at 4:00
  • $\begingroup$ @MrProof So in the definition of Lipschitz continuity $K$ must be a nonnegative number? In this book jirka.org/ra/realanal.pdf page 128, the author considers $K\in \mathbb R$ in the definition of Lipschitz continuity. Is this also correct? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 17, 2022 at 4:26
  • $\begingroup$ @learningmaths It’s easy to see that this is wrong, what is gay is negative? $\endgroup$
    – Mr. Proof
    Commented Feb 17, 2022 at 5:32
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    $\begingroup$ I get it now! Thanks MrProof! (I think you meant: "if $K<0$?") Also @copper.hat, thanks for the feedback. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 17, 2022 at 7:07

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