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I am trying to prove that the $\displaystyle \lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}f(x)=L$ is unique, if it exists.

Definition: Let $f:S\rightarrow\mathbb R$ be a function, where $\infty$ is a cluster point of $S$. We say that $f(x)$ converges to $L$ as $x$ goes to $\infty$ if there exists $L\in\mathbb R$ such that for every $\varepsilon>0$, there is an $M\in \mathbb R$ such that $$|f(x)-L|<\varepsilon$$ whenever $x\in S$ and $x\geq M$.

Here is what I got so far:

Proof: Let $L_1$ and $L_2$ be two numbers that both satisfy the above definition. Take $\varepsilon>0$ and find $M_1\in \mathbb R$ such that if $x\in S$ and $x\geq M_1$ then $$|f(x)-L_1|<\varepsilon/2.$$ Also find $M_2\in \mathbb R$ such that if $x\in S$ and $x\geq M_2$ then $$|f(x)-L_2|<\varepsilon/2.$$ Now, put $M=\max\{M_1,M_2\}$. Suppose $x\in S$ and $x\geq M$ (such $x$ exists since $\infty$ is a cluster point of $S$). Then $$|L_1-L_2|=|L_1-f(x)+f(x)-L_2|\leq |L_1-f(x)|+ |f(x)-L_2|<\varepsilon/2 + \varepsilon/2 = \varepsilon.$$ As $|L_1-L_2|<\varepsilon$ for arbitrary $\varepsilon>0$. Then $L_1=L_2$. $\blacksquare$

Do you think this argument is correct? Any help will be appreciated!

Thanks in advanced.

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    $\begingroup$ Looks good to me. $\endgroup$
    – blamocur
    Commented Feb 2, 2022 at 22:41
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    $\begingroup$ It is good (if you want another vote). You even tidied up with $\epsilon/2$ as needed. Don't feel obliged to do this. If the final statement had been "$|L_1-L_2|<2\epsilon$ for arbitrary $\epsilon>0$'' the same conclusion holds. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 2, 2022 at 22:50
  • $\begingroup$ Hi! Thanks for the feedback. @b-s-thomson I did not know I could just use $2\epsilon$. :) So, I guess a very similar argument works for limit at $-\infty$. Kind regards. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2022 at 1:14
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    $\begingroup$ @learningmaths You are going to use the same ideas again when you prove similar statements about limits in metric spaces. Very worthwhile making sure you understand this stuff extremely well. The other standard way to prove two numbers $L_1$ and $L_2$ are equal is to prove that $L_1\leq L_2$ and that $L_2\leq L_1$. Don't forget that technique. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2022 at 1:35
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    $\begingroup$ It is perfect proof. $\endgroup$
    – Mr. Proof
    Commented Feb 3, 2022 at 7:39

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