Hello guys I want to know if my proof is valid, and whether it is coherent and where I can improve it.
Prove that for all natural numbers, $a,b, n$, where $a>b$, and $n>1$ is a not a prime, $a^n-b^n$ is not a prime number.
My attempt:
Since $n$ is a non-prime greater than $1$, we have $n=xy$ where $1<x,y<n. $We know that $$a^n-b^n=a^{xy}-b^{xy}=(a^x-b^x)(a^{x(y-1)}+b^xa^{x(y-2)}+...+b^{x(y-2)}a^x+b^{x(y-1)})$$ Hence $(a^x-b^x)$ will always divide $a^n-b^n$. We merely need to prove that $a^n-b^n>a^x-b^x>1$. That $a^n-b^n>a^x-b^x$ is obvious since $a^{x(y-1)}+b^xa^{x(y-2)}+...+b^{x(y-2)}a^x+b^{x(y-1)}$ is a positive integer greater than $1$ ($y>1$). Furthermore, we can write $a^x-b^x$ as $(a-b)(a^{x-1}+ba^{x-2}+...+ab^{x-2}+b^{x-1})$. Since $x>1$, $a^{x-1}+ba^{x-2}+...+ab^{x-2}+b^{x-1}$ is a positive integer greater than $1$. Therefore, we have $a^x-b^x=(a-b)(a^{x-1}+ba^{x-2}+...+ab^{x-2}+b^{x-1})>a-b \geq1$. Hence $a^x-b^x>1$. This concludes the proof.