I can understand why the generalized binomial coefficient $\binom a0$ equals $1$ when $a$ is not zero.
Here $a$ can be any real number.
Why? Well, we have:
$$\binom {a}{n} = \frac{a(a-1)\dots(a-(n-1))}{1.2.3 \dots n}$$
$$\Rightarrow \binom {a}{n+1} = \binom {a}{n} \cdot \frac{(a-n)}{n+1}$$
Now if we plug $n=0$ in the above, that gives us:
$$\binom {a}{1} = \binom {a}{0} \cdot a$$
which is the same as:
$$a = \binom {a}{0} \cdot a$$
So when $a$ is non-zero, we cancel the $a$ term. So we must have
$$\binom {a}{0} = 1$$
That is clear.
But why is $\binom {a}{0}$ also equal to $1$ when $a$ is zero?
At least that is what WolframAlpha says, that it's $1$.
But I find it somewhat counter intuitive. Why is it not zero, for example?