I have been reading the book "Introduction to Set Theory" by Jech and Hrbacek and have come to the following exercise in the chapter on sets of real numbers :
Every perfect set is either an interval of form $[a,b]$, $(-\infty,a]$, $[b,\infty)$, or $\boldsymbol{R} = (-\infty,\infty)$, or it is the union of two disjoint perfect sets.
I am able to show that the first four intervals are perfect and cannot be written as a disjoint union of perfect sets. I haven't been able to yet show that if a perfect set is not an interval of one of the first four types that it can be written as a union of two disjoint perfect sets. It is easy to see that a union of closed intervals is a perfect set that meets the requirement that it is a union of two disjoint perfect sets. A union of closed intervals with $(-\infty,a]$ and $[b,\infty)$ would also meet this requirement.
Is it true that any perfect set that is not one of the four interval types above is a disjoint union of intervals of the first three types of intervals listed in the exercise above ? If this is the case how can it be shown ? Also, if it is not the case, can anyone help with the last part of the exercise.