Let $V$ be a real normed vector space. Denote by $V_1$ the subset of $V$ of vectors with norm $\le 1$. Consider a positive-semidefinite symmetric bilinear form $\langle \cdot, \cdot\rangle : V\times V\to \Bbb{R}$, not necessarily the one giving the norm.
Is it true, in general, that $$ \sup_{v,w\in V_1} \langle v, w \rangle = \sup_{v\in V_1} \langle v, v \rangle $$ or do we just have an inequality?
Edit: clarified a bit.