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This is my first post on this forum, so I'm sorry in advance if I come to the wrong section or something ...

I am currently stuck on an exercise of an exam given in my math college. The exercise is the following:

Statement: Let A be the set of points in the plane bounded by the two circles of equation: $x^2+y^2 = 1$ and $(x-1)^2 + (y-1)^2 = 1$.

Exercise: Draw A, then calculate the integral $\int\int _A xy dxdy$.

However, I don't know whether to switch to polar coordinates (which would make it easier to calculate I presume), as it is given as a hint:

Hint: "Start with an integration with respect to y. In the integration with respect to x, make a change of variable $x = 1 - sin(t)$"

I tried to do this by posing: $x^2+y^2 =1\Leftrightarrow x^2 = 1 - y^2$, which I tried to inject into (x-1)^2 + (y-1)^2 = 1, which after transformation, resulted in x+y = 2, which is not great because I can at most get $\sqrt{1-x^2}+y = 2$, using what was done few lines before.

So here are my questions:

  • How do I integrate without polar coordinates, more precisely how do I choose my bounds?
  • I don't see how to choose my bounds if I switch to polar coordinates. I suspect that $\theta \in \left[0;\frac{\pi}{2} \right]$, but it stops here at most.

Thanks in advance for your help!

Here's the two circles

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2 Answers 2

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The double integral in usual, cartesian coordinates is

$$\int_0^1\int_{1-\sqrt{1-(x-1)^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dy\,dx=\int_0^1\left[\sqrt{1-x^2}+\sqrt{1-(x-1)^2}-1\right] dx$$

For the first integral resulting on the rightmost one above substitute $\;x=\sin t\;$, and for the second one substitute $\;x-1=\sin t\;$ . The last one equals $1$, of course. You thus get

$$\int_0^{\pi/2}\cos^2t\,dt+\int_{-\pi/2}^0 \cos^2t\,dt-1=\frac\pi2-1$$

Pretty simple, no need of polar coordinates

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  • $\begingroup$ The OP asked for $\int_{A}xy \mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}x\mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}y$, not just $\int_{A}\mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}x\mathop{}\!\mathrm{d}y$ $\endgroup$
    – Prasiortle
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:17
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for your quick response. I thought that in the majority too! However... in the lower bound of the integral, why is there $1-\sqrt{1-(x-1)^2}$ ? And where did the x and y went in $\int_0^1\int_{1-\sqrt{1-(x-1)^2}}^{\sqrt{1-x^2}}dydx$ ? I'm sorry I don't understand everything, I'm self-taught and I find this exercise confuses me. Thanks in advance for your answer, even though you've already helped me a lot! $\endgroup$
    – Miiloka
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:30
  • $\begingroup$ Oh i know where does the lower bound comes from, tell me if i'm wrong : - we have $(x-1)^2+(y-1)^2=1 =\Leftrightarrow (x-1)^2 = 1 - (y-1)^2$, then we square both side and we separate our x on the left side : $x = 1 \pm \sqrt{1-(y-1)^2}$. But, because $x \in [0,1]$, and for x = 0 y =1 (the intersection point A(0,1)), then we need a "-" in order to get the good result ! Then $x = 1 - \sqrt{1-(y-1)^2}$ - Then, it's the lower bound, because it depends of the equation of $C_2$ ! And because the upper area depends of $C_1$, we have : $x^2+y^2=1 \Leftrightarrow x = \pm\sqrt{1-y^2}$. $\endgroup$
    – Miiloka
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:35
  • $\begingroup$ @Miiloka That is accurate, indeed. $\endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:55
  • $\begingroup$ @Prasiortle The question's title is "area between two circles", that probably misled. But that is unimportant now that he can see the way to do it. $\endgroup$
    – DonAntonio
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:57
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Given circles are $C1: x^2 + y^2 = 1$ and $C2: (x-1)^2 + (y-1)^2 = 1$

At intersection $x+y = 1 \implies 1-x = \sqrt{1-x^2} \implies x = 0, 1$. That leads to $y = 1, 0$. So intersection points are $(0, 1)$ and $(1, 0)$.

For $C2, x = 1 \pm \sqrt{1 - (y-1)^2} = 1 \pm \sqrt{2y-y^2}$. As we are between $0 \leq x \leq 1, x = 1 - \sqrt{2y-y^2}$. So if we integrate wrt $dx$ first and then $dy$, the integral to find area of intersection can be written as,

$\displaystyle \int_0^1 \int_{1-\sqrt{2y-y^2}}^{\sqrt{1-y^2}} xy \ dx \ dy = \frac{\pi}{4} - \frac{2}{3}$

enter image description here

To evaluate it in polar coordinates, please use the hint given. In the diagram if you shift the origin to $O' (0, 1)$, it is easy to see that $C1$ forms between $- \pi \leq \theta \leq 0$ with equation $r = - 2 \sin\theta$ and $C2$ forms between $- \pi/2 \leq \theta \leq \pi/2$ with equation $r = 2 \cos\theta$.

To get to the above equations, you can plug in,

$x = r \cos\theta, y = 1 + r \sin\theta$ in $x^2+y^2 = 1$ and $(x-1)^2+(y-1)^2 = 1$

At intersection of both circles, $2 \cos \theta = - 2 \sin\theta \implies \theta = - \frac{\pi}{4}$. As you can see, between $- \frac{\pi}{2} \leq \theta \leq -\frac{\pi}{4}$, we are bound by $C2$ and between $- \frac{\pi}{4} \leq \theta \leq 0$, we are bound by $C1$.

So the integral is,

$\displaystyle \int_{-\pi/2}^{-\pi/4} \int_0^{2\cos\theta} r^2 \cos\theta \ (1 + r \sin\theta) \ dr \ d\theta$ +
$\displaystyle \int_{-\pi/4}^{0} \int_0^{-2\sin\theta} r^2 \cos\theta \ (1 + r \sin\theta) \ dr \ d\theta$

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  • $\begingroup$ Awesome answer, thank you a lot ! It took away most of the grey areas I had in this exercise !!! $\endgroup$
    – Miiloka
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:41
  • $\begingroup$ Still, why does why are there no more x's and y's in $\int_0^1 \int_{1-\sqrt{2y-y^2}}^{\sqrt{1-y^2}} dxdy$ ? I had $\int\int_A xydxdy$ at the beginning. thanks for your aswer however ! $\endgroup$
    – Miiloka
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 19:44
  • $\begingroup$ I had not noticed $xy$ integrand somehow. I edited now for both cartesian and polar. I am assuming you can complete the integral - it is actually more straightforward in cartesian with appropriate substitution when integrating wrt $dy$. $\endgroup$
    – Math Lover
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 20:02
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    $\begingroup$ Thank you a lot, your walkthrough made things very clear on both methods ! Have a great evening, and take care of yourself. $\endgroup$
    – Miiloka
    Commented Apr 14, 2021 at 20:03

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