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I need to simplify a long boolean expression and I am stuck with this expression $$\mathcal{(A'B)}\text{+}\mathcal{(AB')}$$ Can I simplify that to $\mathcal{(AB)'}\large\text{ ?} $
And if so, what principle does that use$\large\text{ ?}$

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    $\begingroup$ No guy, you can't $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14, 2021 at 11:12
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    $\begingroup$ That is actually the xor gate, it can be written as A $\oplus$ B $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14, 2021 at 11:29
  • $\begingroup$ xor gate, but does that mean i can't simplify it more? $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 14, 2021 at 11:33
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    $\begingroup$ How could it get simpler than "A (some operation) B"? anything else would have $0$ operators and so would be just A or just B, neither of which is same as what you start with. $\endgroup$
    – coffeemath
    Commented Mar 14, 2021 at 11:48

1 Answer 1

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No, both of your expressions are not equivalent. We can show this by Truth Table.

Since, $2$ variables are there, and both of these variables can assume $2$ values $[0/1]$.
Therefore, we can have $4$ possible combinations.

In general, if $n$ variables are there, we can have $2^n$ possible combinations.

Now, TRUTH TABLE

$\mathcal{A}$ $\mathcal{B}$ $\mathcal{A'}$ $\mathcal{B'}$ $\mathcal{A'B}$+$\mathcal{AB'}$ $\mathcal{AB}$ $\mathcal{(AB)'}$
$0$ $0$ $1$ $1$ $\LARGE{0}$ $0$ $\LARGE{1}$
$0$ $1$ $1$ $0$ $\LARGE{1}$ $0$ $\LARGE{1}$
$1$ $0$ $0$ $1$ $\LARGE{1}$ $0$ $\LARGE{1}$
$1$ $1$ $0$ $0$ $\LARGE{0}$ $1$ $\LARGE{0}$

As it is clear from table, both the columns are not same for all possible combinations.

Hence, the expressions are not equivalent.

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