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If $\gcd(a,b,c) = 1$ and $c = {ab\over a-b}$, then prove that $a-b$ is a square. $\\$
Well I tried expressing $a=p_1^{a_1}.p_2^{a_2} \cdots p_k^{a_k}$ and $b = q_1^{b_1}.q_2^{b_2}\cdots q_k^{b_k}$ and $c=r_1^{c_1}.r_2^{c_2}\cdots r_k^{c_k}$ basically emphasizing on the fact that the primes which divide $a$ are different from those that divide $b$ and $c$, but I couldn't come up with anything fruitful. $\\$
Any help would be appreciated. $\\$
Thanks

EDIT:- $a,b,c$ are positive integers.

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    $\begingroup$ $\gcd(a, b, c) = 1$ means that there is no common prime divisor of the three numbers. It is possible a priori that e.g. $\gcd(a, b) > 1$. Also $a, b, c$ may have more than $2$ prime divisors. $\endgroup$
    – WhatsUp
    Commented Mar 7, 2021 at 17:01
  • $\begingroup$ this might help $a^2=(a+c)(a-b)$ $\endgroup$
    – Lozenges
    Commented Mar 7, 2021 at 17:40

5 Answers 5

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Note $\,(a\!-\!b)(a\!+\!c)=a^2\,$ and $\, \overbrace{(\color{#c00}{a\!-\!b,a\!+\!c})=1}^{\text{see comments}}\,$ hence $\,a\!-\!b\,$ is a square. $\ \small\rm QED$


Or $\,d \!=\! a\!-\!b\,$ below $\:\!\Rightarrow\:\! d = \color{#0a0}{(a,b)^2},\,$ i.e. use factorization refinement (Four Number Theorem).

Lemma $\,\ \color{c00}{cd = ab}\, \Rightarrow\, d = \color{#0a0}{(d,a)(d,b)}\ $ if $\ (a,b,c,d)\! =\! 1.\ $ Proof $ $ one liner: expand $\rm\color{#0a0}{product}$.

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    $\begingroup$ The ${\rm \color{#c00}{gcd}} =1$ else: $\,p\mid \color{#c00}{a-b}\mid a^2\Rightarrow p\mid a,\,$ so $\,p\mid \color{#c00}{a-b,a+c}\Rightarrow p\mid b,c\, $ contra $(a,b,c)=1\ \ $ $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 7, 2021 at 18:52
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    $\begingroup$ I wonder why it's not marked the best answer $\endgroup$
    – Ash_Blanc
    Commented Jul 29, 2023 at 13:15
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    $\begingroup$ @Ash_Blanc not to mention that someone downvoted and voted to delete it. Almost surely this has to do with site politics (alas, users involved in site moderation often suffer such attacks). $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 29, 2023 at 13:21
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Suppose $p\mid\gcd(a,b)$, where $p$ is prime. Let $p^r$ be the highest power dividing $a$, and $p^s$ be the highest power dividing $b$. Now since $p\not\mid c$ we must have $p^{r+s}\mid (a-b)$, and in fact it is the highest power dividing $a-b$ (since $(a-b)\mid ab$). If $r>s$, then this is impossible since $p^r\mid a$ but $p^r\not\mid b$, and similarly if $s>r$. So $s=r$.

If $p$ divides exactly one of $a$ and $b$ then it doesn't divide $a-b$. Finally, if $p$ divides neither then it can't divide $a-b$ since $(a-b)\mid ab$.

Thus every prime which divides $a-b$ does so an even number of times.

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the best behaved indefinite ternary quadratic form is $y^2 - zx.$ It takes little to prove that, demanding $x>0$ and $\gcd(x,y,z) = 1,$

$$ x = u^2, \; \; y=uv, \; \; z = v^2 $$

But then all solutions to your $bc-ca+ab=0$ come from $$ a=x+y, \; \; b = y, \; \; c = y+z . $$

You wanted $a-b.$ Here $$ a-b = x+y-y = x = u^2 $$

Alright, let me work on the reverse direction a bit

Not bad: In $y^2 - zx = 0,$ take $x=a-b, y = a, z=a+c.$ So that, demanding $x>0,$ it is a square. We have $\gcd(x,y,z) = \gcd(a,b,c)$ and a little effort tells us this is $1$

ADDED. There is already an answer that refers to unique factorization; here let me talk about $zx=y^2$ using just gcd. The extra demands are that $x >0$ and $\gcd(x,y,z) = 1.$ We begin with $g=gcd(z,y),$ so that $z=gs, y=gt,$ and $\gcd(s,t)=1.$

We reach $gsx = g^2 t^2,$ or $sx = g t^2.$ As $\gcd(s,t)=1,$ we know that $s|g$ so that we may write $g = su.$ This leads to $sx= sut^2$ and $x=ut^2,$ so that $u>0.$

Next we combine to get $y=stu$ and $z = us^2$

We have reached $$ x=u t^2, \; \; y = stu, \; \; z = u s^2 $$ However, as $u$ divides all three and $\gcd(x,y,z) = 1,$ we know $u=1$ Finally $$ x= t^2, \; \; y = st, \; \; z = s^2 $$

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    $\begingroup$ This is likely incomprehensible to most ENT students since arithmetic of quadratic forms is rarely introduced at that level. As for the "added" remark, the "standard" way to do this using unique factorization is to use the theorem I linked in my answer - which yields a one line proof. That theorem is abstracted precisely to handle equations like this (as I mention there, Weil considers it to be the essence of Fermat's method of infinite descent) $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2021 at 8:57
  • $\begingroup$ gcd-based proofs were already given in my link, e.g. $\,\color{#0a0}{y^2 = xz}\Rightarrow $ $(x,y)^2\! = (x^2,\color{#0a0}{y^2}) = \color{#0a0}x(\overbrace{x,\color{#0a0}z}^{\textstyle \color{#c00}{ d }}) = x,\,$ by $\,1=(d,y)\Rightarrow \color{#c00}1 = (d,\color{#0a0}{y^2}) = (d,\color{#0a0}{xz}) \color{#c00}{= d},\,$ by $\,d\mid x\mid xz\ \ $ $\endgroup$ Commented Mar 8, 2021 at 9:29
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Multiply $(a,b,c)=1$ by $a-b$ to get $(a^2-ab,ab-b^2,ab)=a-b$ or equivalently $(a^2,b^2,ab)=a-b$.

Suppose $p^{2k-1} ||a-b$ . Then $p^{2k-1}|a^2$, so $p^k|a$. Similarly $p^k|b$. But then $p^{2k} | (a^2,b^2,a b) = a-b$, a contradiction.

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    $\begingroup$ Simpler: $\,a-b = (a^2,b^2,ab) = (a,b)^2\ \ \small\bf QED\ \ $ I think this is in another answer somewhere... $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 15 at 16:51
  • $\begingroup$ @BillDubuque Nice catch $\endgroup$
    – jjagmath
    Commented Feb 15 at 17:20
  • $\begingroup$ I couldn't find this particular instance, so I appended to my answer a proof using general factorization refinement (a.k.a. Euler's Four Number Theorem). $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 15 at 18:44
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Well $\frac {ab}{a-b}$ being an integer seems unlikely and specific.

In particular if $p$ is a prime divisor of $c$ then $p|\frac {ab}{a-b}$ so $p|ab$ so $p|a$ or $b|b$. But $p$ can't divide both as $\gcd(a,b,c) =1$.

But we have that if $p|c$ then either $p|a$ or $p|b$ but not both but then $p\not \mid a-b$ yet for any $q|a-b$ we must have $q|a$ or $q|b$ so $q$ must divide both $a$ and $b$ so....

Okay.... Let $\gcd(a,b) = d$ and with $a=a'd; b= b'd$ and as $\gcd(a,b,c) = 1$ we have $\gcd(d,c) =1$. (Also we have $\gcd(a',b') = 1$. so.....

$c = \frac {ab}{a-b} = \frac {a'b'd^2}{d(a'-b')} = \frac {a'b'}{a'-b'}d$.

But two things to note. 1) $d\not \mid c$ so we must have $d|(a'-b')$ and $\gcd(a',b') = 1$ so $a' - b'$ can't have any factors in common with $a'$ or $b'$ and so cant have any factors in common with $a'b'$[1]. So we must have $a'-b'|d$.

So we must have:

$c = a'b'\frac d{a'-b'} = a'b'$ and $a'-b' = d$ and $a-b = d(a'-b') = d^2 = \gcd(a,b)^2$.

Too find a case where this is possible we can let $a',b'$ but any two relatively prime integers. Say $a' = 7$ and $b'=3$ so $a'-b' = 4$. Multiply both by $4$ to get $a = 28$ and $b = 12$ and let $c = \frac {ab}{a-b} = a'b'$ or $c = \frac {28\cdot 12}{28-12}=\frac {28\cdot 12}{16} = 7\cdot 3=21$.

SO $\gcd(28,12, 21) = 1$ and $21 = \frac {28\cdot 12}{28-12}$.

Cute.

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[1] A cute, but distractingly tangential lemma: If $\gcd(m,n) =1$ then $\gcd(mn, m- n)=1$. Pf: If $p|mn$ then $p|m$ or $p|n$ but not both. So $p\not \mid m-n$.

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