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There is a general understanding that some infinities are bigger than others, in particular the infinity of the integers, the countable set of infinite discrete elements, and that larger infinity of the uncountable continuum.

Do mathematical limits take this distinction into consideration? Having an epsilon approach zero could be via an iterated mechanism of subdivision or via some continuous shrinking process, and because there are different types of infinity it feels like the way an epsilon becomes infinitesimal should matter.

For a concrete example, I was curious about the distinction between the limit of adding countably infinite edges/vertices to a regular polygon and the traditional notion of a continuous circle. There's a meme about starting with a circle's bounding square and recursively inverting the right angles, approaching something that bounds the area of the circle in the limit but still has the perimeter of the original bounding square. That breaks down because the boundary, that first derivative, is no longer smooth, it is a discontinuous fractal of right angles.

I was curious if there was something more subtle but similarly broken in taking the limit of a regular polygon with countably infinite sides. Such a polygon would only have vertices at rational divisions of the angle around the perimeter, and in theory would be overwhelmed by all of the irrational points lying on straight edges with zero curvature. Could there perhaps be a difference in the second derivative, where a real circle is continuously curved everywhere and the second derivative of an infinite regular polygon is a dust with curvature zero almost everywhere and curvature 1/(countably infinite) just at the rational vertices?

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    $\begingroup$ What about the cardinality of the rationals, a countable but non-discrete set? $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 10:26
  • $\begingroup$ Your question at best sounds vague and a lot of terms need to defined properly. What do we mean by limit via continuous shrinking and via subdivision? Under what definition is a circle a limit of regular polygons? What are infinitesimals and on top of that countable or uncountable infinitesimals? $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 11:26
  • $\begingroup$ A precise definition of limits does not involve any shrinking. It is just a matter of testing the truth of an infinite set of statements and nothing more. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 11:28

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The underlying problem here is that the natural numbers are all of the following (and more):

  1. cardinals,
  2. ordinals,
  3. real numbers.

Because people are exposed to limits a long time before they are exposed to any other concept of infinity, there's a tendency to think that all of these things are the same, and that "a limit is a limit is a limit", so $\aleph_0$ and $\omega$ should somehow connect to the real numbers. Maybe not as real numbers directly, but maybe in its "infinite relative" in the form of infinitesimals.

But this is not how it works. These systems have a different notion of limits. The notion of infinitesimals is not related to cardinals, and cardinals are not real, hyperreal, or surreal numbers.

Now, it's true that you can ask "how many sides does a circle have", and you'd expect the answer to be in the form of a cardinal number (because those are the answers to "how many objects"). Now, we need to define what constitutes as a "side" here, and then we can have a proper answer.

The real answer, though, is that there is a lot of subtlety here, and a flagrant lack of continuity when it comes to limits. So even if a circle is somehow a limit of polygons, the number of sides of a circle need not be the limit of the number of sides of the polygon. That's just not how it works.

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    $\begingroup$ +1 for setting the matter straight. A major source of confusion is when people try to mix up things which can't be mixed. The last paragraph in the answer is especially important. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 11:19
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    $\begingroup$ There is a sense in which the OP's question does have some meaning, namely in more general (topological) spaces in which nets are involved and the nets have linearly ordered subnets of transfinite length. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 11:29
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    $\begingroup$ I'm being rather generous and mentally rewriting the OP's 2nd sentence, especially without any mention of infinitesimals, and ignoring the rest of what's written . . . $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 11:32
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    $\begingroup$ @Jason: In short, the different algebraic systems and definitions are just too different. Infinitesimals still have a field operations that they are expected to follow, and cardinals just don't have that. Ordinal arithmetic is not even commutative. To truly understand this, you'd need to spend some time learning set theory, working with cardinals and ordinals, getting a good feel to their structure, and probably working at least a bit with non-standard models of arithmetic (since they usually embed as a backbone into the hyperreals and other type of constructions). Then you'll know. $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 12:18
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    $\begingroup$ @Jason: Yes, Apple is a software company, which also dabbles in hardware; Orange is a telecom company. Those are not comparable, they're complementary. (Some 10 years ago I had an Apple used for an Orange, true story.) $\endgroup$
    – Asaf Karagila
    Commented Feb 26, 2021 at 12:34

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