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Let $f:[0,\infty)\rightarrow[0,\infty)$ be a smooth function such that $f(0)=0$, $f''<0$, $f'(x)>0$ for $x\in(0,N)$ and $f'(N)=0$. I would like to show that $$ \max_{x\in(0,\infty)}\bigg(\sum_{k=1}^N \frac{1}{1+|f(k)-x|}\bigg)=\sum_{k=1}^N \frac{1}{1+f(N)-f(k)}, $$ i.e. the maximum is attained at $x=f(N)$.

The geometric considerations seem to confirm the validity of the above claim, but I don't know how to formalize the proof. Any hints will be appreciated!

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  • $\begingroup$ Some details might need to be checked: since $f''(x)<0$, if $f'(x)$ is ever negative then $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x) = -\infty$, which means it can't map to the codomain $(0,\infty)$. Or do you mean that $f''(x)<0$ is mandated only for $x<N$? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 3, 2021 at 2:03
  • $\begingroup$ You're right, the problem didn't make sense the way it was written. Thanks for pointing it out. I corrected it and I believe it should be okay now. $\endgroup$
    – Tony419
    Commented Feb 3, 2021 at 2:16
  • $\begingroup$ Can't stop to think about this--and maybe I would have nothing to contribute--but when I saw your title my first thought was: Jensen's inequality. Maybe that would be useful. $\endgroup$
    – Mars
    Commented Feb 3, 2021 at 2:25
  • $\begingroup$ Perhaps, but I can't quite see how to use it here yet... $\endgroup$
    – Tony419
    Commented Feb 3, 2021 at 2:27
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    $\begingroup$ I don't know if it matters, but $f'(N) = 0$ together with the concavity and non-negativeness implies that $f$ is constant on $[N, \infty)$. $\endgroup$
    – Martin R
    Commented Feb 3, 2021 at 9:44

1 Answer 1

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I think $N = 3$, $f(x) = x \, (2 N - x)$ yields a counterexample. Denote $$ g(y) := \sum_{k = 1}^N \frac{1}{1 + |f(k) - y|}.$$

Then, $$ 1.1181 \approx g(f(2)) > g(f(3)) \approx 1.0928.$$

(Actually, one has to modify $f$ slightly to obtain a smooth function $f \colon [0,\infty) \to [0,\infty)$, but this can be done without changing $f(1), f(2)$ and $f(3)$)

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