Let $f:[0,\infty)\rightarrow[0,\infty)$ be a smooth function such that $f(0)=0$, $f''<0$, $f'(x)>0$ for $x\in(0,N)$ and $f'(N)=0$. I would like to show that $$ \max_{x\in(0,\infty)}\bigg(\sum_{k=1}^N \frac{1}{1+|f(k)-x|}\bigg)=\sum_{k=1}^N \frac{1}{1+f(N)-f(k)}, $$ i.e. the maximum is attained at $x=f(N)$.
The geometric considerations seem to confirm the validity of the above claim, but I don't know how to formalize the proof. Any hints will be appreciated!