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This question asked which of the two following formulas was always right whilst the other one was sometimes wrong, and what was the necessary and sufficient condition for the formula which was sometimes incorrect to be always right:

  • (i) $\; A - (B - C) = (A - B) \cup C $

  • (ii) $\; A - (B \cup C) = (A - B) - C $

Using Venn diagrams, I guessed (ii) was always right, and (i) would be wrong if $A$ and $C$ are disjoint. Thus, the necessary and sufficient condition for (i) to be correct was $A$ and $C$ contain some elements in common.

My questions are:

  1. Were my guesses correct?

  2. How could I prove the two formulas above using words/expressions rather than using Venn diagrams?

Thanks a lot.

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2 Answers 2

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Yes, your guesses are correct (except for “the necessary and sufficient condition for (i) to be correct” — I explain it in my other answer.)


Ad (i):

To prove, that it is not always true, it is sufficient to provide particular sets $A$, $B$, $C$ which don't satisfy the equation (i.e. so called contra example).

So let $A$, $B$, $C$ are as in this table, where are progressively calculated expressions from them:

Row Expression Value
1 $$A$$ $$\{1\}$$
2 $$B$$ $$\emptyset$$
3 $$C$$ $$\{2\}$$
4 $$(B-C)$$ $$\emptyset$$
5 $$A−(B−C)$$ $$\{1\}$$
6 $$(A−B)$$ $$\{1\}$$
7 $$(A−B)∪C$$ $$\{1, 2\}$$

By comparing rows 5 and 7 we see that the equation is not satisfied.


Ad (ii):

To prove the equality for every sets $A$, $B$, $C$, we need to prove that every element in the set on the left-hand side of the equality

$$A−(B∪C)=(A−B)−C$$

belongs to the right-hand set, and vice versa.

So let

$$x \in A−(B∪C).$$

Then by definition of the set subtraction

$$x \in A, \ \text{but}\ x \notin (B \cup C)$$

But if $x \notin (B \cup C)$, then by definition of the set union

$$\text{neither}\ x \in B, \ \text{nor}\ x \in C$$

which mean — again by definiton of the set subtraction — that

$$x \in (A - B), \ \text{ but }\ x \notin C$$

i.e. — once more by definiton of the set subtraction — that

$$x \in (A - B) - C$$

So we proved that the arbitrary element $x$ of the left-hand side belongs to the right-hand side, too.

The reversed statement we may prove by similar manner.

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    $\begingroup$ Thanks, Marian. I'm looking for an answer that involves only words (no diagrams, no numbers) to prove the equalities in a generalised way. $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Jan 14, 2021 at 9:49
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    $\begingroup$ My answer involves no diagrams, no numbers (you may substitute numbers 1, 2 in the first part with letters a, b, if you prefer it). The table is only a form — you may totally ignore it, using only the first 3 rows as a desired contra example. $\endgroup$
    – MarianD
    Commented Jan 14, 2021 at 10:01
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    $\begingroup$ Your method of answer in part (ii) is exactly what I was looking for: only using definitions (which I badly described as words!). Thanks heaps! Mimicking your method, I tried to prove (i) as follows: if $x \in A - (B - C)$ it means $x \in A$ but $x \notin (B - C)$. This in turn means $x \in (A - B)$ or $x \in C$, that is, $x \in (A - B) \cup C$, which is only true if $A \cap C \neq \emptyset$. Is that OK? $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Jan 14, 2021 at 12:08
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    $\begingroup$ Another superb answer to a simple to state but actually quite tricky -- at least to me -- problem. $\endgroup$
    – Wd Fusroy
    Commented Jan 14, 2021 at 12:59
  • $\begingroup$ @Nemo, your derivation is perfectly correct expect of the last part — “which is only true...”. It is always true. I decided to write another answer for this particular part of your question. $\endgroup$
    – MarianD
    Commented Jan 15, 2021 at 11:01
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To obtain

the necessary and sufficient condition for the formula

(i) $\; A - (B - C) = (A - B) \cup C $

which was sometimes incorrect to be always right

let's first use Venn diagrams:
 

enter image description here

As we may see, the results are different. For an easy comparison let's display and enumerate individual parts of every result:

enter image description here

From the picture follows that for obtaining the same results, the parts 4 and 5 must be empty.

But what represent parts 4 and 5 together? The set $C - A$, of course.

It means that this set must be empty, i.e. (from definition of set subtraction) there must not be an element in $C$ which is in the same time not in $A$.

In other words, every element of the set $C$ must belong to the set $A$, too, which means that the set $C$ must be a subset of the set $A$.

So we may state our hypothesis:


The necessary and sufficient condition for the formula

$$A - (B - C) = (A - B) \cup \tag 1C$$

to be always correct is

$$C \subset A.\tag 2$$


Now we prove it:

  1. Sufficiency.

    Let $C \subset A.\ $ Then:

    1. The left-hand side of $(1)$ is a subset of its right-hand side, because:

      If $x \in A−(B−C)$,

      then $x \in A$, but $x \notin (B−C)$. From the definition of the set subtraction follows that either $x \notin B$, or $x \in C$.

      1. If $x \notin B$, then $x \in (A-B)$, so indeed $x \in (A - B) \cup C$.

      2. If $x \in C$, then $x \in (A - B) \cup C$, too.

      So if $x$ belongs to the left-side hand of $(1)$, it belongs to the right-side hand of $(1)$, too, which means that $$A - (B - C) \subset (A - B) \cup C \tag 3$$

    2. The left-hand side of $(1)$ is a superset of its right-hand side, because:

      If $x \in (A - B) \cup C$,

      then $x \in (A - B)$, or $x \in C$.

      1. If $x \in (A - B)$, then $x \in A$, but $x \notin B$. But if $x \notin B$, $x \notin (B-C)$, too. So $x \in A - (B - C)$.

      2. If $x \in C$, then (by presumption $(2)$) $x \in A$, too, but certainly it not belongs to $B-C$. So, again, $x \in A - (B - C)$.

      So if $x$ belongs to the right-side hand of $(1)$, it belongs to the left-hand side hand of $(1)$, too, which means that $$A - (B - C) \supset (A - B) \cup C \tag 4$$

    From $(3)$ and $(4)$ follows, that

    $$A - (B - C) = (A - B) \cup C,$$

    so the $C \subset A$ is the sufficient condition for this equation.

     

  2. Necessity.

    Let $A - (B - C) = (A - B) \cup C,$

    and let $x \in C$. Then $x$ belongs to the right-hand side of this equation, which means that it belongs to the left-hand side of this equation, too, which in turn means that $x$ certainly belongs to $A$, too.

    So $C \subset A$, so we prove it as a necessary condition for $(1)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Fantastic answer! Thank you so much, Marian! How could I learn to be able to reason like you did? What software did you use to draw such beautiful and clear diagrams? $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Jan 16, 2021 at 9:51
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    $\begingroup$ @Nemo, you're welcome. About reasoning — probably a lot of reading, a lot of practice. I used Krita for drawing diagrams in this answer, but only because I began to learn it (it is mainly for artists). I recommend you GeoGebra, which is more appropriate. BTW, both programs are free and multiplatform (Linux, macOS, Windows, Android, ...). $\endgroup$
    – MarianD
    Commented Jan 16, 2021 at 10:07

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