The following is from Real Analysis by N. L. Carothers.
Theorem: If $a$ and $b$ are real numbers with $a < b$, then there is a rational number $r$ $\in \mathbb{Q}$ with $a < r < b$.
Proof: Since $b - a > 0$, we may apply the Archimedean property to get a positive integer $q$ such that $q(b - a) > 1$. But if $qa$ and $qb$ differ by more than one, then there must be some integer in between.$\\$I.e. $\;qa < p < qb\implies a < \dfrac{p}{q}< b\;$, $\;\dfrac{p}{q}\in \mathbb{Q}\;$.
What I do not understand is the "must" part. Why does there exist an integer between the two reals? Is this tied to some general result that shows the existence of some $p$ quantity of something when two objects (= numbers) differ by some $c$?