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So I have been proving various logical statements using induction method (like structural induction , strong induction , weak induction etc ).I was wondering If there is a proof of this "Induction proof method" . So far , I came to this ,

Induction $\rightarrow$ Well ordering principal $\rightarrow$ Axiom of choice $\rightarrow$ ZFC $\rightarrow$ First-order logic theory

So now I wonder , Is there a way to prove (or show equivalence of) this method of proof using just Logic and no Set theory.Also point out if there is a flaw in my reasoning

Edit:It seems like structural induction doesn't do induction over numbers of any kind , it does in on structures .So I can't use peanos axioms to formulate it .I need ZFC .But ZFC is just a kind of first order logic.So structural induction comes from this particular first order logic . But there are some General theorems (which probably don't necessarily belong to ZFC) in Propositional Calculus which I have to prove using structural Induction .But Structural Induction can only be used inside ZFC , not outside of it.I am confused.In a simpler way , The following general theorem I will show at the end of my question is outside of set theory . And I need structural induction to prove it . But structural Induction can only prove things inside set theory. Because Structural Induction is a axiom of Axiomatic set theory.

I will give just a example of one of these general theorem.

"Assume $A$$1$ $\equiv$ $A$$2$ . Show that for any formula $C$-containing $A$$1$ as a part , if we replace one of more occurences of the part $A$$1$ by $A$$2$ , then the resulting formula is logically equivalent to $C$."

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    $\begingroup$ Induction is an axiom of arithmetic. It can be generalized to recursively defined structure, such as formulas, lists, or trees. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 7:52
  • $\begingroup$ It can be further generalized and proved in the context of set theory $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 7:55
  • $\begingroup$ In the context of "pure" logic, it needs Second-order Logic. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 7:56
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    $\begingroup$ Induction is taken as an axiom in every system that I'm aware of. In Peano Arithmetic, which is the setting of "finitary mathematics", we explicitly include induction as an axiom (schema). Similarly, if you want to do infinitary mathematics, we work in the setting of ZFC. However, even in ZFC we basically add in an induction axiom - the axiom of infinity says that "a set which we can do induction to" exists. $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 7:56
  • $\begingroup$ Can you show me The Second order logic form of induction? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 8:00

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Mathematical induction is one of the Peano axioms, to which every definition of the natural numbers and the set of natural numbers, in every set theory, has to abide.

After defining natural numbers in a set theory, and after constructing the natural numbers and the set of natural numbers from this, the Peano axioms need to be proved within the set theory, making only use of set theory and symbolic logic. It all takes place $\textit{within}$ a set theory, and hence one cannot do it $\textit{outside}$ a set theory.

The proof of the induction schema reduces to a simple set-theoretical argument; of course this may differ according to the basics of the set theory used. For example, in Quine's New Foundations (NF) the induction schema does not generally hold - as may be expected, it only holds for stratified formulae, or, more general, for formulae $\phi$ for which $\{x|\phi\}$ exists.

See my dissertation on NF in https://eprints.illc.uva.nl/574/1/X-1989-02.text.pdf .

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  • $\begingroup$ The following general theorem I showed at the end of my question is outside of set theory . And people are telling me that I need structural induction to prove it . But structural Induction can only prove things inside set theory , right? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 16, 2020 at 13:27
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    $\begingroup$ That 'general theorem' is one within symbolic logic, and proving it can be done by applying general language syntax rules, in this case concerning the naming of variables (if you rename a variable, you have to do so everywhere). Note that the definition of the symbolic logic used needs to explain the concept of 'variable'. $\endgroup$
    – Maestro13
    Commented Nov 19, 2020 at 16:22
  • $\begingroup$ So I don't have to use (or shouldn't use) structural induction to prove that 'general theorem' . right? $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 20, 2020 at 6:05
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    $\begingroup$ Right - there will always be a (known) finite number of terms $A_1$ in that theorem, and if you prove that you can replace one and land up with an equivalent statement, then it follows (without the need of an induction reasoning) that you can step by step replace all. $\endgroup$
    – Maestro13
    Commented Nov 22, 2020 at 14:09
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The Principle of Mathematical Induction boils down to a fact known about the natural (counting) numbers for thousands of years:

Every natural number but the "first" (1 or 0), can be reached by a process of repeated succession starting at the "first" number.

More formally, induction can be shown to hold on any set $N$ (possibly finite) with $x_0\in N$ and function $S: N \to N$ such that:

$~~~~~~N = \{ x_0,~ S(x_0), ~S(S(x_0)), ~\cdots ~\} $

My formal proof using a form of natural deduction is here. Yes, it does use some very basic set theory, but only an axiom schema for arbitrary subsets (equivalent of specification in ZFC).

Also on this topic, see my blog postings:

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  • $\begingroup$ I see an article in your blog on the Drinkers' Paradox, based on Russell's Paradox. I can't resist sharing the following paradox: youtube.com/watch?v=olQI8rak8c0 $\endgroup$ Commented Nov 2, 2020 at 18:17

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