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$N$ kids each brought $k$ balls to a party. When they leave each kid brings back $k$ balls randomly. Let $X$ be the total number of balls brought back by their original owners. We fix $k$. Find the distribution of $X$ when $N \rightarrow \infty$

[EDIT, removed my earlier incorrect attempt] As the comment pointed out when $k=1$ it's a rather simple Poisson distribution. But how do we prove this case for arbitrary $k$?

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  • $\begingroup$ Interesting question! But consider $k=1$ and we have $E[X] = 1$ but $X \ge 0$. I'm guessing $X$ is much more like Poisson than like Gaussian. $\endgroup$
    – antkam
    Commented Oct 15, 2020 at 4:30
  • $\begingroup$ @antkam very good point. How do we prove it's a Poisson though.. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 15, 2020 at 12:25
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    $\begingroup$ Here it's shown that the (very special) case $k=1$ (which amounts to counting derangements) tends to a Poisson qchu.wordpress.com/2012/11/07/… I would bet that here we also have a Poisson, but it looks difficult to prove. $\endgroup$
    – leonbloy
    Commented Oct 16, 2020 at 14:08
  • $\begingroup$ I am 80% confident this is in Feller volume 1. Why is the original post tagged as 'solution-verification' when no work is shown? $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2020 at 21:39
  • $\begingroup$ @user8675309 i originally offered an incorrect solution that was pointed out by the comments. I have removed my solution and the solution verification tag now $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 17, 2020 at 22:42

1 Answer 1

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The distribution you want should be Poisson(k) and this should follow from Stein-Chen method. (I will be referring to https://faculty.math.illinois.edu/~psdey/414CourseNotes.pdf)

Imagine each student kept $k$ buckets in front of them, and then after the reshuffling, checked whether the bucket contained a ball of theirs. We then have $kn$ Bernoulli random variables, each with probability of success 1/n. Now, we have

$$W = \sum_{i=1}^{kn} 1_i$$

We note that most of these random variables are positively correlated, since if we return someone's ball to them, buckets belonging to others are likelier to have their owners' balls. There are some of them that are negatively correlated though, which means we cannot use any of the results in that PDF directly; however, a small modification should still get the job done.

For $Y_j^i$, we consider the coupling that is induced by at first fixing bucket $i$ to have its owner's ball, and then swapping u.a.r. (analogous to Example 8.3 on the PDF linked above.)

We thus have

\begin{align} p_i E[|U_i - V_i|] &\leq E[|X_i + \sum_{j \neq i} - Y_j^i| \\ &\leq p_i E[X_i] + \sum_{O(j) \neq O(i)} p_i E(Y_j^i - X_j) + \sum_{j \neq i, O(j) = O(i)} p_i E[X_j - Y_j^i]\\ &\leq E[X_i]^2 + \sum_{O(j) \neq O(i)} E[X_i X_j] - E[X_i]E[X_j]) \\ &- \sum_{j \neq i, O(j) = O(i)} E[X_i X_j] - E[X_i] E[X_j] \end{align}

Now, we can evaluate both sums:

$$\sum_{O(j) \neq O(i)} E[X_i X_j] - E[X_i]E[X_j]) = k(n-1) (\frac{k^2}{(nk)(nk-1)} - \frac{1}{n^2} ) = \frac{k^2 (n-1)}{n^2 (k^2 n - k)} = O(n^2) $$

$$\sum_{j \neq i, O(j) = O(i)} E[X_i X_j] - E[X_i] E[X_j] = (k-1) (\frac{k(k-1)}{nk (nk-1) } - \frac{1}{n^2}) = O(n^3)$$

and then, summing it up, we see that the overall TV distance to a Poisson of rate $\lambda = \sum_{i}^{kn} 1/n = k$ can be bounded by order O(1/n).

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you explain what $U_i, V_i, O(i)$ are since the link is dead? $\endgroup$
    – INvisibLE
    Commented Nov 29, 2023 at 13:30

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