-1
$\begingroup$

Wikipedia states that all propositional logic statements can be transformed into CNF.

However, I'm not so sure how we can further simplify $(A \vee B) \wedge (C \vee D)$?

Or if this is CNF, why is it in CNF? To quote wikipedia:

... it is a conjunction of one or more clauses, where a clause is a disjunction of literals; otherwise put, it is a product of sums or an AND of ORs ...
$\endgroup$
3
  • 5
    $\begingroup$ It is already in CNF. $\endgroup$
    – player3236
    Commented Sep 29, 2020 at 4:11
  • $\begingroup$ @player3236 can you explain why? I've edited the post to reflect the definition: each clause should contain disjunctions and each clause should be conjunction'd with each other. $\endgroup$
    – gust
    Commented Sep 29, 2020 at 4:32
  • $\begingroup$ Both $A\lor B$ and $C\lor D$ are clauses. You have conjunction'd them. $\endgroup$
    – player3236
    Commented Sep 29, 2020 at 4:33

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
2
$\begingroup$

$(A \vee B) \wedge (C \vee D)$ is an AND of two OR's: $A \vee B$ and $ C \vee D$

Moreover, both OR's are disjunctions of literals: $A, B, C,$ and $D$ are all atomic statements, which are all literals.

So, this statement is in CNF

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .