0
$\begingroup$

How can I turn this form

  1. $\neg( ( p \Rightarrow q ) \Rightarrow r )$

to disjunctive normal form and to the disjunctive normal form fully developed ?

I have done the truth table see below

truth table

I arrived to this form : $(\neg p \vee q) \wedge r$ but I am not sure if it is correct and if I had developed enough

Thanks for your help !

$\endgroup$
2
  • 3
    $\begingroup$ Welcome to MSE. Your question is phrased as an isolated problem, without any further information or context. This does not match many users' quality standards, so it may attract downvotes, or closed. To prevent that, please edit the question. This will help you recognise and resolve the issues. Concretely: please provide context, and include your work and thoughts on the problem. These changes can help in formulating more appropriate answers. $\endgroup$
    – José Carlos Santos
    Commented Aug 29, 2020 at 10:49
  • $\begingroup$ Please ask only one question per post. Having multiple questions in the same post is discouraged and such posts may be closed, see meta. $\endgroup$
    – Shaun
    Commented Aug 29, 2020 at 13:33

1 Answer 1

Reset to default
0
$\begingroup$

I arrived to this form : $(\neg p \vee q) \wedge r$ but I am not sure if it is correct and if I had developed enough

This is not correct. Hint: $\sf~\neg(A\to B) \equiv A\wedge\neg B~$ by implication negation.

$\endgroup$

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .