My approach: We have:
$\displaystyle\frac{a-b}{b+c}+\frac{b-c}{c+d}+\frac{c-d}{d+a}+\frac{d-a}{a+b}$
$\displaystyle=\frac{a+c}{b+c}-1+\frac{b+d}{c+d}-1+\frac{c+a}{d+a}-1+\frac{d+b}{a+b}-1$
$\displaystyle=(c+a)\left(\frac1{b+c}+\frac1{d+a}\right)+(b+d)\left(\frac1{c+d}+\frac1{a+b}\right)-4\ge (c+a) \left(\frac{2\cdot 2}{b+c+d+a}\right)+(b+d)\left(\frac{2\cdot 2}{c+d+a+b}\right)-4$
(on applying AM $\ge$ HM.)
$\displaystyle=\left(\frac4{a+b+c+d}\right) (c+a+b+d)-4=0.$
Hence the inequality.
But I would love to know is there any other elegant method to prove the same? Please mention. Thanks in advance.