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This is an excerpt from a book that I'm reading.

If we know that two acute angles have the same value for some trigonometric function (e.g. $\sin \alpha = \sin\beta$), then we know the angles are equal ($\alpha = \beta$). (Can you prove this?)

In order to prove the assertion, I squared both sides of the equation to get

$\sin^2\alpha = \sin^2\beta$

Then I added $\cos^2\alpha$ to both sides of the equation, so that

$\sin^2\alpha$ + $\cos^2\alpha$ = $\sin^2\beta$ + $\cos^2\alpha$

Then since $\sin^2\alpha$ + $\cos^2\alpha$ = $1$, it follows that $\sin^2\beta$ + $\cos^2\alpha$ = $1$.

From the trig identity, $\sin^2\theta$ + $\cos^2\theta$ = $1$, we find that $\theta = \beta = \alpha$

I wanted to know if anything needs to be corrected?

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  • $\begingroup$ From $\sin^2 \beta + \cos^2 \alpha = 1$, all you can deduce is that $\cos^2 \alpha = \cos^2 \beta$ and $\sin^2 \alpha = \sin^2 \beta$. How do you get $\beta = \alpha$ from that? Where did you use the fact that the angles are acute? $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2018 at 3:54
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    $\begingroup$ The assertion is just saying that such functions are 1-1 when restricted to acute angles, i.e., to $(0,\pi/2)$. $\endgroup$
    – MPW
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:30
  • $\begingroup$ Is is possible that someone can explicitly write out a proof? It would be much easier to follow along that way. $\endgroup$
    – Skm
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:33

1 Answer 1

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How can you conclude that $\beta=\alpha$ from $\sin^2\beta+\cos^2\alpha=1$, without using the mentioned assertion?

You only need the fact that all the six trigonometric functions are strictly monotonic on $\displaystyle \left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$.

For example, $\cos x$ is strictly decreasing on $\displaystyle \left(0,\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$. Suppose that $\cos \alpha=\cos\beta$ for some acute angles $\alpha$ and $\beta$. $\alpha$ cannot be smaller than $\beta$, as it would implies that $\cos\alpha>\cos\beta$. Similarly, $\alpha$ cannot be larger than $\beta$, as it would implies that $\cos\alpha<\cos\beta$. The only possibiility left is $\alpha=\beta$.

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  • $\begingroup$ the assertion that two acute angles have the same value for some trigonometric function? $\endgroup$
    – Skm
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:10
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, you need the assertion to complete your work. $\endgroup$
    – CY Aries
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:14
  • $\begingroup$ are you saying that I need that fact that all six trig functions are strictly monontonic on $(0, \pi/2)$ in order to get that $\beta = \alpha$ from $\sin^2\beta + \cos^2\alpha = 1$ ? $\endgroup$
    – Skm
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:29
  • $\begingroup$ You proof does not work. You can make the conclusion directly from strict monotonicity. $\endgroup$
    – CY Aries
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 4:36
  • $\begingroup$ @K.M Please read my edited answer, with more details. $\endgroup$
    – CY Aries
    Commented May 30, 2018 at 5:36

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