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I am trying to learn about digamma function and it's uses. For example series, I found somewhere this solution: $$\begin{align*} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(3n+2)\left ( 3n+3 \right )} &= \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left [ \frac{1}{3n+2} - \frac{1}{3n+3} \right ]\\ &=\frac{1}{3} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \left [ \frac{1}{n+ \frac{2}{3}} - \frac{1}{n+1} \right ]\\ &=\frac{1}{3} \left [ -\psi^{(0)} \left ( \frac{2}{3} \right ) + \psi^{(0)}(1) \right ]\\ &= \frac{\log 3}{2}- \frac{\pi}{6 \sqrt{3}} \end{align*}$$ I can prove the same result using a different method using integrals, but I am insterested about digamma function here, does this equality hold: $$-\psi(a) =\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1} {n+a} ?$$ Now I know that the RHS diverges so this can't be true. My thought is that this hold if the series is not alone(we must have like in the solution from above two parts or more inside the series). Can you help me with a proof for this?

Also here:http://mathworld.wolfram.com/PolygammaFunction.html It's shown a general form for this, but of course this doesnt hold for digamma function right?

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  • $\begingroup$ 1. This series cannot represent the digamma function since it is divergent for every $a$. 2. For a representation of the digamma function as a series, please see the obvious. $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:10
  • $\begingroup$ It is. And? (Hmmm... did you read the link I provided? No? Why?) $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:17
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe we have different definitions of "to read", then. $\endgroup$
    – Did
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:23
  • $\begingroup$ @Zacky take a look at my answer, I hope it answers your question. $\endgroup$
    – aleden
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:27

2 Answers 2

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Weierstrass Formula: $$\Gamma(z)=\frac{e^{-\gamma z}}{z}\prod_{n=1}^\infty \frac{e^{\frac{z}{n}}}{1+\frac{z}{n}}$$

$$\log\Gamma(z)=-\gamma z-z+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{z}{n}-\log(1+\frac{z}{n})$$

Differentiating:

$$\frac{\Gamma'(z)}{\Gamma(z)}=\psi(z)=-\gamma-1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}-\frac{\frac{1}{n}}{1+\frac{z}{n}}$$ $$\psi(z)=-\gamma-1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{z+n}$$

If $z\in\Bbb N^+$, this becomes a simple telescoping sum and $\psi(z)=-\gamma-1+H_z$ where $H_z$ is the $z$th harmonic number.

Furthermore, $\psi(z)\neq\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{1}{n+z}$ due to the divergence for any given $z$.

Just because $$\psi(z)-\psi(s)=(-\gamma-1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{z+n})-(-\gamma-1+\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{n}-\frac{1}{s+n})=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{s+n}-\frac{1}{z+n}$$

doesn't mean that $\psi(z)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{z+n}$ and $\psi(s)=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{s+n}$.

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    $\begingroup$ I see, now I understand, basically when we substract gamma constant and the other part cancels out, thats why they are equal. Thank you! $\endgroup$
    – Zacky
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:29
  • $\begingroup$ Glad I could help $\endgroup$
    – aleden
    Commented Apr 22, 2018 at 14:31
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$$\sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{n+a}$$ is blatantly divergent, the exploited identity was $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\frac{1}{(n+a)(n+b)} = \frac{\psi(a)-\psi(b)}{a-b} $$ which comes from the Weierstrass product for the $\Gamma$ function.

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