I have this problem which I have solved, but using two different methods. I am quite new to combinatorics and want to know how to intuitively understand the difference between the following two methods.
The problem consist of calculating the probability of getting a full house being dealt a 5-card poker hand.
First of, I solve this by simply saying that
$P($get full house$)=\frac{2 {13\choose 2} {4 \choose 3} {4 \choose 2}}{{52 \choose 5}}$. This is the right answer according to my text-book. However, at my first attempt at solving this I forgot the factor 2 in the numerator. My reasoning goes like this: All the possible ways of getting a full house consists of all the ways we can combine two different ranks (i.e. ${13 \choose 2}$) times all the possible ways of choosing 3 cards out of 4 suits, times all the possible ways of choosing 2 cards out of 4 suits. Now, all this seems logical to me. The thing that makes me doubt whether I truly understand what I'm doing is how the factor 2 comes in place. I'm thinking: Because we choose two different ranks without regards to order, we have to compensate for those combinations and therefore multiply with $2!$, because obviously it does matter if I (for example) choose the ranks (ace,knights) and in this sequence choose three ace and two knights.
On the other hand, I can solve the problem using the method described here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/808328/518320
Which as well seems intuitively clear, thinking the way the user describe the process in that thread.
What is the difference in the two methods? Maybe this is obvious, but I'm new to combinatorics. And is my reasoning above accurate?
Thanks!