If we define smooth curve in $\mathbb R^3$ as an image of a differentiable map $m: [0,1] \to \mathbb R^3$ then a curve is represented as a set of points $m(t)=(x(t),y(t),z(t))$ where $t \in [0,1]$.
Then a tangent vector at a point $(x(t_0),y(t_0),z(t_0))$ is defined as $(x´(t_0),y´(t_0),z´(t_0))$.
But, how can we be sure that really that is the tangent vector, that is, a vector that in some neigbourhood approximates that curve better than any other vector, in some strictly and well-defined sense?
I understand that $x´(t)$ gives us a speed of change of a point with respect to $x$-coordinate, that is, it gives us a speed of change of a projection of a point to the $x$-axis. The same for $y´(t)$ and $z´(t)$.
But... I am still not sure that $(x´(t_0),y´(t_0),z´(t_0))$ really is the tangent vector at point $(x(t_0),y(t_0),z(t_0))$.
I believe that it is but, geometrically, I do not see that.
Can some explain to me this issues I am facing with?