Let $P$ be a stochastic kernel on a measurable space $(\mathsf X,\mathfrak B(\mathsf X))$. The kernel $P$ is called $\varphi$-irreducible if for a positive measure $\varphi$ and for all measurable sets $A$ it holds that: $$ \tag{1}\varphi(A)>0 \quad \Rightarrow \quad \sum\limits_{n\geq 1}P^n(x,A) >0 \quad \forall x\in \mathsf X. $$
One of the statements of Proposition 4.2.2 (p. 90 here) is that if $P$ is $\varphi$-irreducible, then it holds that $P$ is $\psi$-irreducible where the measure $\psi$ is given by $$ \psi(A) = \int\limits_\mathsf X \sum_{n\geq 0}2^{-(n+1)}P^n(x,A)\varphi(\mathrm dx). $$ The definition of $\psi$ is not that important for my question, though.
In the first part of the proof, also page 90, the following is stated
To see (i), observe that when $\psi(A)>0$, then [...] $$ \tag{2} \left\{y:\sum\limits_{n\geq 1}P^n(y,A)>0\right\} = \mathsf X. $$
This fact is further elaborated and used to show the $\psi$-irreducibility of $P$. It seems to me, however, that the cited part explicitly implies irreducibility as it is equivalent to $(1)$. I guess, I am missing something - otherwise it is a cyclic argument. Also, I don't know how to show $(2)$.