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It is easy to prove that Firoozbakht's conjecture implies (for $n\geq 2$ is equivalent to) $$\sigma(p_n^n)> \frac{p_{n+1}-1}{p_n-1}\sigma(p_{n+1}^{n-1})\tag{1}$$ $\forall n\geq 2$, where $\sigma(m)=\sum_{d\mid m}d$ denotes the sum of divisors function. See if you need the Wikipedia's article dedicated to Firoozbakht's conjecture.

With easy calculations I've deduced from $(1)$ an easy statement, and I would like to know if it is right.

Question 1. Provide us a proof, or the proof for a similar statement: For each integer $N\geq 2$ one has $$\sigma\left(\prod_{n=1}^N p_n^n\right)> \frac{3}{2}(p_{N+1}-1)\prod_{n=2}^N\sigma(p_{n+1}^{n-1}),\tag{2} $$ on assumption of Firoozbakht's conjecture. Many thanks.

This is an optional question that you can answer if you want, with the purpose to obtain feedback about my previous approach.

Question 2. (Optional) Was interesting or can we get a more elaborated statement $(2)$? Thanks in advance.

Now I am asking if $(2)$ is interesting versus Firoozbakht's conjecture or some unsolved problem related to the sum of divisor function, or well the theory of distribution of primes and the theory of the sum of divisors function itself. Or, if you can provide me a more elaborated statement inspired or similar than $(1)$ (I evoke that you can to combine Firoozbakht's conjecture with different arithmetic functions, like to primorials, the Euler's totient function or the sum of divisor function and different unsolved problems or theorems related to these arithmetic functions).

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks for previous upvotes, users of this site are very generous. $\endgroup$
    – user243301
    Commented Dec 17, 2017 at 20:47
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    $\begingroup$ Can't you just prove it using induction and your first statement? $\endgroup$
    – Mastrem
    Commented Dec 18, 2017 at 10:44
  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks @Mastrem I am waiting a proof to do a comparison with my calculations and know if those were rights. If you want to add a formal proof using induction (my calculations were a draft withou induction) it is welcome. $\endgroup$
    – user243301
    Commented Dec 18, 2017 at 13:40
  • $\begingroup$ The inequality isn't strict. $N=2$ gives both sides equal to $12$ $\endgroup$
    – Mastrem
    Commented Dec 18, 2017 at 15:16

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This is a simple proof by induction. The base case is $N=2$: $$\sigma(p_1p_2^2)=12\ge12=\frac32(p_3-1)\sigma(p_3)$$ Now, assume that for some $N$, we have: $$\sigma\left(\prod_{n=1}^{N}p_n^n\right)\ge\frac32(p_{N+1}-1)\prod_{n=2}^{N}p_{n+1}^{n-1}$$ this is the induction hypothesis. Now, for the induction step. Take the inequality you derived for $n=N+1$: $$\sigma(p_{N+1}^{N+1})>\frac{p_{N+2}-1}{p_{N+1}-1}\sigma(p_{N+2}^{N})$$ and multiply this by the inequality in the induction hypothesis to get: $$\sigma(p_{N+1}^{N+1})\sigma\left(\prod_{n=1}^{N}\sigma(p_n^n)\right)>\frac{3(p_{N+2}-1)}{2(p_{N+1}-1)}\cdot(p_{N+1}-1)\sigma(p_{N+2}^{N})\prod_{n=2}^{N}\sigma(p_{n+1}^{n-1})$$ Simplifying yields: $$\sigma\left(\prod_{n=1}^{N+1}p_n^n\right)>\frac32(p_{N+2}-1)\prod_{n=2}^{N+1}\sigma(p_{n+1}^{n-1})$$ And we're done. We've now proven your inequality, though it's not really strict (we have equality for $N=2$)

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  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks, this is very clear and with rigor. I am going to study in next hours. Since maybe some user wants to answer the optional question, I am going to wait a week before check an answer. $\endgroup$
    – user243301
    Commented Dec 18, 2017 at 19:26

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