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Problem Statement

A deck of card is shuffled then divided into two halves of 26 cards each. A card is drawn from one of the halves, it turns out to be an ace. The ace is then placed in the second half-deck. The half is then shuffled, and a card is drawn from it. Compute the probability that this drawn card is an ace.

The solution is as follows:

Let I denote the event that the interchanged card is selected. Let S be the event that the two values are the same. Then

$P(S)=P(I)P(S|I)+P(I^c)P(S|I^c)=\frac{1}{27}\cdot 1+\frac{26}{27}\frac{3}{51}$

Solution by different user:

Let A be the event that we draw an ace the second time, and let P(i) be the probability that there are i aces originally in the second pile and P(A|i) be the probability that we draw an ace conditional on the second pile starting with i aces. We have

$P(A)=\sum_{i=0}^{3} P(A|i)P(i)$

It is easy to compute $P(A|i)=\frac{i+1}{27}$. Computing $P(i)$ is slightly more involved. We need to compute the number of possible half-decks with i aces, which we will denote $N_i$, and then $P(i)=\frac{N_i}{\sum_{j=0}^{3}N_j}$.

If we have i aces and $26-i$ other cards (out of the 48 non-aces), then there are $\binom{4}{i}\binom{48}{26-i}$ possible hands.

Computing the answer is now a matter of plugging into the formula. ... when we computed our probabilities, we divided by $N_0+N_1+N_2+N_3$, and not by $\binom{52}{26}=N_0+N_1+N_2+N_3+N_4$....

My Question:

I did the calculation in excel and yet I still cannot get the right answer. The second solution is similar to the same argument I followed. Is this 2nd solution incorrect or perhaps the way I executed it? Below is a snippet of the excel sheet:

Excel Snippet

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  • $\begingroup$ In case someone would like to try the formulae in excel (see code in inverted commas): P(A|i)= " ( A3+1)/27 " Sum of Nj = " FACT(4)/(FACT(4-D3)*FACT(D3))*(FACT(48)/(FACT(48-26-D3)*FACT(26-D3))) " Ni = " FACT(4)/(FACT(4-A3)*FACT(A3))*(FACT(48)/(FACT(48-26-A3)*FACT(26-A3))) " P(i) = " G3/$E$8 " P(A) = " P(A|i)*P(i)=B3*I3 " $\endgroup$
    – Johnny M
    Commented Nov 14, 2017 at 16:03
  • $\begingroup$ The two proposed solutions don’t produce the same value. Simulation suggests that the first one is correct, with a result of about 9.36%. $\endgroup$
    – amd
    Commented Dec 14, 2017 at 21:52

1 Answer 1

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The second argument is suspect because having drawn "an ace" has introduced bias into the previously equally likely possibilities. Try repeating your method but assuming that you drew the ace of hearts (the other cards now remain equally likely to be chosen or not).

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