Is it possible to assign a meaning to $$ \int_{-\infty}^\infty dt \; \delta(a-x(t)) \delta(b-y(t)) $$
Is it a distribution? Since the usual definition of the Dirac delta involves a single integral for a single Dirac delta $$ \int_{-\infty}^\infty dt \; \delta(t-a) f(t) = f(a) $$
using this to do the integral over one of the delta we are left with the other Dirac delta.
For a single Dirac delta it is straightforward to show by variable substitution that $$ \int_{-\infty}^\infty dt \; \delta(a-x(t))= \left ( \frac{dx}{dt} \Bigg |_{x(t)=a} \right )^{-1} $$
(assuming that $x(t)$ is injective such that there is only one $t$ where $x(t)=a$).
By some intuitive argument I want this to be the same as: if $x(t)$ and $y(t)$ are both injective and $x(t_1)=a$ and $y(t_2)=b$ then it is $1/(\text{some derivative...})$ if $t_1=t_2$ and $0$ otherwise - but this is not correct, right?
Thanks!